RPSC Lecturer Commerce 2018

  1. Scope of human resource management includes followings aspects:
    (a) Labor or human resource aspect
    (b) Welfare aspect
    (c) Industrial relations aspect
    (d) All of the above
  2. Essence of human resource management is to:
    (a) Manage whole organisation
    (b) Manage human being
    (c) Manage human being and things
    (d) Manage human being and environment
  3. Scope of human resource management is :
    (a) Training and development
    (b) Organization and development
    (c) Personal research and information system
    (d) All of the above
  4. The concept of management by objective was introduced by_____.
    (a) Peter F.Drucker
    (b) F.W.Taylor
    (c) Elton Mayo
    (d) Rensis Linkert
  5. The meaning of entrepreneurship is
    (a) to be appointed as a chief executive officer.
    (b) desire, feeling and ability of a person to start a new assignment.
    (c) to become a minister in the government.
    (d)  All of the above
  6. Which of this is not a characteristic of entrepreneurship?
    (a) Innovation
    (b) Organizing skills
    (c) Indifferent approach
    (d) Risk taking
  7. The term entrepreneur and manager are the same.
    (a) True
    (b) False
    (c) Partly true
    (d) None of the above
  8. Which is the following is not a function of HRM?
    (a) Motivating
    (b) Selling goods ans services
    (c)  Managing change
    (d) Development and training
  9. Which skills are not required by an HR manager?
    (a) Staffing
    (b) Communication
    (c) Ethical conduct
    (d) Technical machine knowledge
  10. What are the duties of a company secretory?
    (a) Administration of board of general meeting
    (b) Compliance of internal regulations & legislation
    (c) Both a & b
    (d) None of the above
  11. Who can make a complaint before a consumer forum?
    (a) A consumer
    (b) Any voluntary consumer association registered under companies Act,2013 or under any other law for time being in force.
    (c) Central government/State government.
    (d) All of the above
  12. A contract may be discharged by-
    (a) Performance of contract
    (b) Operation of the law
    (c) Mutual agreement
    (d) All of the above
  13. Which of these is not an essential element of a contract?
    (a) Competency of parties to contract
    (b) Adequacy of consideration
    (c) Consensus
    (d) Legality of object
  14. What are the goals of marketing?
    (a)  Attracting new customers
    (b)  Promising superior value
    (c) Grow current customers by delivering satisfaction
    (d) All of the above
  15. The maximum number of directions in a public company are
    (a) 2
    (b) 7
    (c) 15
    (d) 20
  16. In a partnership firm every partner is the principal company are
    (a) Agent
    (b) karta
    (c) Partner
    (d) Owner
  17. Primary and secondary market of capital market:
    (a) Compete with each other
    (b) Complement with each other
    (c) Function independently
    (d) Control each other
  18. Which of the following is not element of marketing mix?
    a) Product
    (b) Price
    (c) Place
    (d) Packaging
  19.  If director of a company is mind then secretary’s
    (a) Ear, Nose and Throat
    (b) Ear, Eyes and Hand
    (c) Ear, Nose and Eyes
    (d) None of the above
  20. Which is the first step of planning process according to George R. Terry?
    (a) Determination of objective
    (b) Formulating of plants
    (c) Analyzing opportunities
    (d) Forecasting
  21. An agreement which is the enforceable by law is__.
    (a) Offer
    (b) Acceptance
    (c) Consideration
    (d) Contract
  22. Matters exceeding_____are considered in national commission.
    (a) Rs.1 lack
    (b) Rs. 10 lacks
    (c) Rs. 1 crores
    (d) Rs. 10 crores
  23. “OTCET” was started on the lines of :
    (a) NASDAQ
    (b) NYSE
    (c) NASAQ
    (d) NSE
  24. Which is not the function of marketing?
    (a) Purchase and production of goods.
    (b) Gathering and analyzing market information.
    (c)  Market planning.
    (d) Product designing and development.
  25. Under which section company secretary’s functions mention?
    (a) Section 150
    (b) Section 205
    (c) Section 307
    (d) Section 143
  26. Which book was wrote by Henry Fayol in French language in 1916?
    (a) Administration industrialle et general
    (b) Psychology and industrial efficiency
    (c) Industrelle management
    (d) Generale & Industrealle management
  27. Feature of marketing research is _
    (a) Intensive study
    (b) Scientific approach
    (c) Decision tool
    (d) All the above
  28. Who said this “Marketing comprises both buying and selling activities”?
    (a) Intensive study
    (b) Scientific approach
    (c) Decision tool
    (d) All the above
  29. Who said this “Marketing comprises both buying and selling activities”?
    (a) B.O. Wheeler
    (b) Pyle
    (c) AMA (American marketing association)
    (d) None of these
  30. Scope of marketing includes-
    (a) a product or a service
    (b) a person or a place
    (c) an idea or an experience
    (d) All of the above
  31. Mode & Median are
    (a) Arithmetic mean
    (b) Progressive mean
    (c) Divisional mean
    (d) Positional average
  32. Which remedies are suggested for organic farming?
    (a) Use of Bio- farming
    (b) Education &  training
    (c) Dry farming
    (d) All of the above
  33. The most important scheme to increase employment in rural areas of India’s _____.
    (a) National rural livelihood mission
    (b) Swarn jayanti shahari rozgar yojana
    (c)  National rural employment guarantee scheme
    (d) None of the above
  34. There was need of economic reforms since 1991 because____.
    (a) To check on wastage of resources
    (b) for incentive to foreign investment
    (c) To remove unnecessary and strict policies & rules
    (d) All of the above
  35. Which element is not included in economic reforms?
    (a) Nationalisation
    (b) Liberalisation
    (c) Globalisation
    (d) Privatisation
  36. The ideal method of index number is______.
    (a) Laspeyre’s method
    (b) Pasche’s method
    (c) Fisher’s method
    (d) Kelly’s method
  37. Organised section of capital market is controlled by ____.
    (a) Securities exchange board of India (SEBI)
    (b) Reserve bank of India
    (c) Government of India
    (d) None of these
  38. Basic characteristics of India economy are____.
    (a) Agricultural dominant
    (b) Population explosion
    (c) Developing economy
    (d) All of the above
  39. Which item has highest valve of import in foreign trade?
    (a) Machinery & Equipment
    (b) Gold
    (c) Petroleum
    (d) Technical know-how
  40. Government efforts for export promotion can be___.
    (a) Appointment of inquiry
    (b)  Establishment of export promotion institutions
    (c) Export incentives and promotions scheme
    (d) All of the above
  41. Present export – import policy in India declared on____.
    (a) 1st June,2014
    (b) 1st September,2014
    (c) 1st December,2014
    (d) 1st April,2015
  42. Models based on statistical data are called___.
    (a) Analog models
    (b) Physical models
    (c) Quantitative models
    (d) None of these
  43. National income is___.
    (a) Net national product at factor cost
    (b) Gross national product at factor cost
    (c)  Net national product at market price
    (d) Gross national product at market price
  44. In an company gross national product is ____.
    (a) Gross domestic product
    (b) Gross domestic product+Export
    (c) Gross domestic product+Export-Import
    (d) None of these
  45. Central Budget includes______.
    (a) Revenue receipts & Revenue expenditure
    (b)  Capital receipts & capital expenditure
    (c) Fiscal deficit
    (d) All of the above
  46. The basic of apportionment & distribution of taxes collected by central & state government is decided by______.
    (a) Planning commission
    (b) Policy commission
    (c) Finance commission
    (d) Finance minister
  47. Which bank of apportionment & distribution of taxes collected by central & state government is decided by_____.
    (a) NABARD
    (b) Export- Import bank
    (c) Reserve bank of India
    (d) State bank of India
  48. Who helps in development and strengthening of domestic economies of the LDC?
    (a) Globalization
    (b) Liberalization
    (c) Economic reform
    (d) None of these
  49. Calculate GDP and GNP from the following data:
    Value of final goods – Rs. 2,500 crore
    Value of final service – Rs. 1,780 crore
    Net factor Income from abroad – Rs. 120 crore
    (a) Rs. 4,280 crore & Rs. 4,480 crore
    (b) Rs. 4,400 crore & Rs. 4,280 crore
    (c) Rs. 5,600 crore & Rs. 5,800 crore
    (d) Rs. 5,800 crore & Rs. 5,600 crore
  50. _____is the seem total of private consumption government consumption gross domestic capital formation and net export
    (a) Income approach
    (b) Expenditure approach
    (c) Value added approach
    (d) Product approach
  51. Which is the criticism of the Marshall’s definition (Product Approach)?
    (a) Difficulty in comparison
    (b) Difficultly in enumeration
    (c) Difficulty of barter system and of self consumption
    (d) All of the above
  52. Target plus scheme accelerate________.
    (a) Import
    (b) Growth of export
    (c) Free export credit
    (d) free trade
  53. Main hurdle of export promotion is
    (a) Increase in internal demand
    (b) High production cost
    (c) Competition
    (d) All of the above
  54. Tidal park is situated at ________.
    (a) Hyderabad
    (b) Chennai
    (c) Bangalore
    (d) Mumbai
  55. In which sectors, economic reform 1991 applied?
    (a) Industrial sector
    (b) Banking sector
    (c) Foreign sector
    (d) All of the above
  56. In 2012-13, Which dispute sector is open for foreign investment?
    (a) Commodity and Exchange
    (b) Multi Brand Retail
    (c) Insurance
    (d) Banking
  57. Which of the following is suggested for the successful implementation of green revolution?
    (a) Administrative to co-operative farming
    (b) Encouragement to co-operative farming
    (c) Co-ordination between various departments
    (d) All of the above
  58. National Horticulture Mission started in:
    (a) 2001-02
    (b) 2010-11
    (c) 2005-06
    (d) 2014-15
  59. Best Method to measure the dispersion is___________.
    (a) Quartile deviation
    (b) Mean deviation
    (c) Standard deviation
    (d) None of the above
  60. The response of employment to growth in GDP is known as_______.
    (a) Employment elasticity
    (b) Employment inelasticity
    (c) Formal employment
    (d) Informal employment
  61. “there is not always full employment in a developed capitalist economy. This statement was given by
    (a) Karl Marx
    (b) Lord Keynes
    (c) Malthus
    (d) Prof.Michael stewart
  62. Which one of the following scheme was launched with the objective of helping the poor in rural areas to become self-employed?
    (a) DPAP
    (b) IRDP
    (c) TRYSEM
    (d) DDP
  63. India’s first finance commission was established by_______in________ under Article_____of the Indian Constitution.
    (a) President of India, 1956,280
    (b) President of India, 1951,280
    (c) Prime minister of India, 1956,290
    (d)Prime minister of India, 1956,280
  64. Crop rotation and green manure are related to which technique?
    (a) Organic farming
    (b) Soil management
    (c) Both (1) & (2)
    (d) None of these
  65. The most successful co-operative in India is
    (a) AMUL
    (b) DCCBs
    (c) NABARD
    (d) PACs
  66. MRTP Act stands for
    (a) Monopolies & Restrictive trade
    (b) Monopolies & Regulated trade
    (c) Monopolies & Restrictive trade practice Act
    (d) Monopolies & Restrictive trading process Action
  67. The credit for new Economy Policy goes to
    (a) Dr. Manmohan singh & P. Chidambaram
    (b) Lt. P.V. Narsimha Rao & Dr. Manmohan singh
    (c) Lt. Atal Bihari vajpayee & L.K. Advani
    (d) Mr. Narendra Modi & Mr. Arun Jaitly
  68. The Arithmetic mean for following data of marks obtained by 50 students of class will be
    marks 10 20 30 40 50
    No. of students 5 15 10 15 5

    (a) 20
    (b) 30
    (c) 40
    (d) 50

  69. ‘Prepaid Rent’ account is a
    (a) Personal account
    (b) Real account
    (c) Nominal account
    (d) None of the above
  70. Which option shows the correct sequences of accounting process?
    (a) Recording – Classifying – Interpreting – Summarising
    (b) Recording – Classifying – Summarising – Interpreting
    (c) Recording – Summarising – Classifying – Interpreting
    (d) Interpreting – Recording – Classifying – Summarising
  71. Under which concept the owner of a business is considered as creditor ?
    (a) Dual aspect concept
    (b) Separate entity concept
    (c) Cost concept
    (d) Going concern concept
  72. Which of the following can be recorded in journal proper?
    (a) Opening and closing entries
    (b) Transfer entries
    (c) Adjusting entries
    (d) Rectifying entries
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) (a),(b),(c),(d) all
    (b) Only (a)
    (c) Only (a) and (b)
    (d) Only (a) and (c)
  73. Object of adjustment entries is __________.
    (a) To know correct gross profit
    (b) To know correct net profit
    (c) To know correct financial position
    (d) All of the above
  74. ‘A suit is pending against the firm in the court’ Where is it shown in the final accounts?
    (a) Profit and Loss account
    (b) Balance Sheet
    (c) Profit and Loss a/c and Balance sheet both
    (d) Footnotes
  75. Following information is given in trial balance of a firm:
    Bad Debts Rs. 3,000,Provision for Bad debts Rs.10,000,Debtors Rs.1,00,000
    Adjustment:Bad Debts Rs.1,000,Make a provision for Bad Debts on Debtors @ 5%
    The amount to be shown is profit and Loss account
    (a) on Debit side of shown Profit and Loss Account Rs.1,000
    (b) on Credit side of Profit and Loss account Rs. 1,000
    (c) on Debit side of Profit and Loss account Rs. 1,050
    (d) on credit side of Profit and Loss account Rs. 1,050
  76. Installation charges of a newly purchase of machinery have been debited to machinery account,it is______.
    (a) not an error
    (b) an error of omission
    (c) an error of commission
    (d) an error of principal
  77. The written down value of an asset after three years of depreciation on reducing balance method @ 10% per annum is Rs.3,93,660. what was its original value?
    (a) Rs.2,75,562
    (b) Rs. 5,40,000
    (c) Rs. 4,37,500
    (d) Rs. 5,11,758
  78. Which reserve is not capital reserve out of the following reserve?
    (a) Premium on issue of shares or debentures.
    (b) Profit prior to incorporation
    (c) Under valuation of closing stock
    (d) Profit on sale of fixed assets over the original cost
  79. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
    List – I  List – II
    (A) Retiring a bill  (i) Interest Charges
    (B) Dishonour of a bill  (ii) Discount
    (C) Renewal of a bill  (iii) Nothing charge
    (D) Discounting of a bill  (iv) Rebate

    Code:
    (a) (i),(ii),(iii),(iv)
    (b) (iii),(i), (iv),(ii)
    (c) (ii),(iv),(i),(iii)
    (d) (iv),(iii),(i),(ii)

  80. A fixed asset costing Rs.2,00,000 and having a written down value of Rs.1,30,000 is sold for Rs. 2,20,000. the disposal of fixed asset has resulted in________.
    (a) a capital profit of Rs.90,000
    (b) a revenue profit of Rs.90,000
    (c) a revenue profit of Rs.70,000 and capital profit of Rs. 20,000
    (d) a capital profit of Rs. 70,000 and revenue profit of Rs. 20,000
  81. Gopal is owner of the business. According entry for the amount withdrew by him is
    (a) Debit Gopal’s account and Credit cash account
    (b) Debit drawing account and credit Gopal’s account
    (c) Debit drawing account and capital cash account
    (d) Debit cash account and credit drawing account
  82. The transfer of a bill of exchange by the holder to any other party before its due date is called
    (a) Dishonour of Bill
    (b) Retirement of Bill
    (c) Endorsement of Bill
    (d) Discount of Bill
  83. When an accommodation bill is discounted,the amount of discount is borne_______.
    (a) wholly by the acceptor
    (b) wholly by the drawer
    (c) by the drawer and acceptor equally
    (d) by the drawer and acceptor in the ratio of funds used by them.
  84. X and Y are partners in a firm with capital of Rs. 48,000 and Rs. 31,000 respectively. They admitted Z as a partner with 1/4 share of profit. Z brings Rs. 30,000 as his capital . Z’s share of goodwill be:
    (a) Rs. 2,750
    (b) Rs. 11,000
    (c) Rs. 17,500
    (d) Rs. 12,750
  85. Adarsh Ltd. Foreited 40 share of Rs. 10 each,Rs.7 called up, on which Virat had paid Rs. 5 per share, of these, 30 shares were reissued to Tarun as fully paid up for Rs. 6 per share. How much amount will be transferred to Capital reserve Account?
    (a) Rs. 30
    (b) Rs. 80
    (c) Rs. 120
    (d) RS. 200
  86. The profit or loss on realization is transferred to all partner’s capital accounts
    (a) in the profit sharing ratio
    (b) equally
    (c) in the ratio of the partner’s fixed capital accounts
    (d) in the ratio of partner’s capital accounts after the trsansfer of partners current accounts to partner’s cueernt accounts to partner’s capital accounts
  87. When all the debentures are redeemed, in which account , the balance of Debenture Redemption Reserve account is transferred?
    (a) Capital Reserve
    (b) General Reserve
    (c) Profit and Loss account
    (d) Profit and Loss appropriation account
  88. The process of ascertaining cost is called:
    (a) Costing
    (b) Cost Accounting
    (c) Cost Accountacy
    (d) Cost Audit
  89. Computerized Accounting system should be____.
    (a) Simple and Integrated, transparent, Accurate, Scalability, Reliability
    (b) Complex, Accurate, Transparent, Faster to work
    (c) Able to transform the manual accounting system to computerized accounting system
    (d) None of these
  90. The five pillars (components) of computerized accounting system are____.
    (a) Data, Report, Ledger, Hardware, Software
    (b) Data, People, Procedure, Hardware, Software
    (c) people, Procedure, Ledger, Data, chart of account
    (d) Data, Coding, Procedure, Rules, Output
  91. Which of the following is not a true statements about the co-efficient of variation(C.V)?
    (a) It is an absolute measure.
    (b) It is the percentage form of standard deviation.
    (c) It is used to check consistency in two or more series.
    (d) Higher the co-efficient of variation, higher the variability.
  92. Which average is suitable to know the average level of intelligncy of students in a class?
    (a) Mean
    (b) Mode
    (c) Median
    (d) Geometric Mean
  93. Discoutn or Loss on issue of debentures to be written off after 12 months from the date of Balance sheet or after the period of operating cycle is shown as
    (a) Other current assets
    (b) Other Non-Current assets
    (c) Other Current Liabilities
    (d) Other Long – Term Liabilities
  94. In which format financial statements of a company are prepared according to companies Act,2013?
    (a) Horizontal or account form
    (b) Vertical or report form
    (c) Comparative form
    (d) All of the above
  95. Which of the following is not a ‘Method of costing”?
    (a) Contract costing
    (b) Job costing
    (c) Process costing
    (d) Standrd costing
  96. The technique in which total of assets & Liabilities is converted into 100 is_______.
    (a) Comparative balance sheet
    (b) Common size balance sheet
    (c) Trend analysis
    (d) Ratio analysis
  97. Which of the following is not a cash inflow?
    (a) Issue of debentures
    (b) Decrease In bills payable
    (c) sale of plant
    (d) Decrease in debtors
  98. Drawing office salaries is related to______.
    (a) Prime cost
    (b) Factory overhead
    (c) Office overhead
    (d) Selling and distribution overhead
  99. If sale price of a product is Rs.25,000, selling and distribution expenses is Rs. 4,000 and profit is 25% on cost, then cost of production will be______
    (a) Rs. 15,000
    (b) Rs. 16,000
    (c) Rs. 18,000
    (d) Rs. 20,000
  100. Duties of an Auditor are covered under which section of companies Act, 2013?
    (a) Section 138
    (b) Section 139
    (c) Section 141
    (d) Section 143
  101. From the following information about an item of inventory, find out economic order quantity:
    Annual consumption: 3200 units
    Unit cost: Rs. 6
    Ordering cost : Rs. 150
    Inventory carrying per unit per year is 25% of unit cost.
    (a) 700 Units
    (b) 800 Units
    (c) 750 Units
    (d) 128 Units
  102. Which of the following is an investing activity?
    (a) Redemption of debentures
    (b) Dividend paid ( Non financial companies only)
    (c) Dividend received ( Non financial companies only)
    (d) Proceeds from issue of shares
  103. The cost of idle time incurred by employees that is considered normal for the production process should be charged to
    (a) Work-in-process inventory
    (b) Factory overhead
    (c) Direct Labour
    (d) Administrative overhead
  104. In a single throw of two dice, what is probability of getting a total of at least 10?
    (a) 2/36
    (b) 1/6
    (c) 5/6
    (d) 5/36
  105. Overheads at two levels of production are as under:
    Productions Total overheads
    (Units) (Rs.)
    Find out fixed overhead
    (a) Rs. 2,000
    (b) Rs. 800
    (c) Rs. 6,000
    (d) Rs. 4,000
  106. Which of the following is not a feature of payback period method?
    (a) It is simply a method of cost recovery.
    (b) It considers profitability of the project.
    (c) It does not consider the time value of money
    (d) It does not consider the risk associated with the project.
  107. “An auditor is watchdog and not a blood hound”. This statements relates with which of the following case law?
    (a) Kingston cotton mills case
    (b) London and General bank knott
    (d) Armitage versus Brewer and Knott
    (c) London oil storage Co. versus Seear Hasluck & Company.
  108. Which of the following is not a function of educational psychology?
    (a) Helping in maintaining discipline
    (b) Solving classroom problems
    (c) Helping in evaluation & assessment
    (d) No option is correct
  109. Eductional psychology is not
    (a) an applies branch of psychology
    (b) the science of education
    (c) a positive science
    (d) a normative secience
  110. Which of the following statements is not correct about educational psychology?
    (a) It is concerned with what and ‘why’ of education.
    (b) It employs scientific methods to study behavior of an individual in educational environment
    (c) It deals with teacher, learner and teaching learning situations.
    (d) It is not a perfect science.
  111. Which of the following psychologist introduced the pharse ‘ Storm and Stress’ to characterize adolescence?
    (a) John Locke
    (b) G.Stanley Hull
    (c) Clark Hull
    (d) Sigmund Freud
  112. According to Erik Erikson, normative crisis for ‘Adolescence’ is
    (a) Trust Vs Mistrust
    (b) Identity Vs Role confusion
    (c) Autonomy Vs Shame
    (d) Intimacy Vs Isolation
  113. According to Kohlberg’s theory of moral development which of the following statement characterizes the stge 4?
    (a) Punishment- Obedience Orientation
    (b) Good boy – Good girl Orientation
    (c) Social Contract Orientation
    (d) Law and Order Orientation
  114. The concept of ‘ Modeling’ is based on the work of which of the following psychologist?
    (a) J.B. Watson
    (b) B.F. Skinner
    (c) Albert Bandura
    (d) Sigmund Freud
  115. Which of the following is not true about mental health?
    (a) Mental health cannot be achieved without physical health.
    (b) Mental health is a static concept.
    (c) Mental health differs from ethical standards.
    (d) Mental health and social ability not similar.
  116. Which of the following is not a step of system’s approach?
    (a) System analysis
    (b) System design and development
    (c) System operation and evaluation
    (d) Systematic data collection
  117. Which of the following is not a phase of system approach to instructional system?
    (a) Formulation of objectives
    (b) Pre- assessment of students entering behaviour
    (c) Developing instructional system
    (d) Testing the hypothesis
  118.  Which of the following is not a step of Advance Organizer Model of Teaching?
    (a) Presentation of Advance Organizer
    (b) Presentation of Learning material
    (c) Strengthening of cognitive Organization
    (d) Encounter with the problem
  119. Which of the following believed that social interaction is import for construction of knowledge?
    (a) Jean piaget
    (b) Lev Vygotsky
    (c) J.B. Watson
    (d) B.F. Skinner
  120. The concept of emotional intelligence was first introduced by:
    (a) Peter Salovey and John Mayer
    (b) Dan Goleman
    (c) E.L. Thorndike
    (d) B.F. Siknner
  121. According to Piaget theory of cognitive development, the ability to understand the law of conservation develops in
    (a) Sensory Motor stage
    (b) Concrete Operational stage
    (c) Pre-Operational stage
    (d) Formal Operational stage
  122. Heinz’s Dilemma is related to which of the following theory?
    (a) Piaget’s theory of cognitive development
    (b) Freud’s theory of Psycho-Sexual development
    (c) Kohlberg’s theory of Moral development
    (d) Bandura’s theory of observational learning
  123.  Which is the following is not true about reinforcement?
    (a) Positive Reinforcement strengthens
    (b) Negative Reinforcement weakens a response
    (c) Negative Reinforcement strengthens a response
    (d) Negative reinforcement is similar to punishment
  124. Which of the following is not involved in notion of Emotional Intelligence as given by Mayer, 2008?
    (a) Ability to read other’s emotion correctly
    (b) Self Motivation
    (c) Regulating and Controlling one’s own emotion
    (d) Motivating others
  125. Which of the following is not related to the classical conditioning?
    (a) Extinction
    (b) Spontaneous Recovery
    (c) Discrimination
    (d) Shaping
  126. Today sunlight is uncomfortably bright. You put on a sunglass which reduced your discomfort. It may be an example of
    (a) Negative Reinforcement
    (b) Positive Reinforcement
    (c) Negative Punishment
    (d) Positive Punishment
  127. Jean Piaget used “The three Mountain problem” to illustrate which of the following concept?
    (a) Law of conservation
    (b) Egocentrism
    (c) A-B search error
    (d) Reasoning ability
  128. In which of the following schedule of reinforcement, the “Reinforcement is least predictable?
    (a) Fixed interval schedule
    (b) Fixed ratio schedule
    (c) Variable ratio schedule
    (d) All are equally predictable
  129. A secondary reinforce has that has been paired with more than one primary reinforce is known as
    (a) Primary Reinforcer
    (b) Activity Reinforcer
    (c) Generalized Reinforcer
    (d) Differential Reinforcer
  130. The belief that “learners actively create, interpret and recognize knowledge in individual ways” best describes:
    (a) Behavior view
    (b) Constructivist view
    (c) Psychonalyst view
    (d) Functinalist view
  131. Which of the following is not true about knowledge from the view point of a  constructivist ?
    (a) Knowledge is subjective
    (b) Knowledge is contextual
    (c) Knowledge is objective
    (d) Knowledge is partial
  132. A micro processor of a computer is an example of
    (a) Hardware
    (b) soft ware
    (c) Spyware
    (d) Malware
  133. Which of the following term is used by Piaget to describe the inability to transfer learning about one type of conservation to other types?
    (a) A-B search error
    (b) Cognitive Dissonance
    (c) Horizontal Decalage
    (d) Vertical Decalage
  134. Adolescent Growth Spurt refers to
    (a) A rapid  increase in height & weight of adolescents that precedes sexual maturity
    (b) A rapid growth of brain neurons of adolescents
    (c) A rapid growth of cognitive Abilities of adolescents
    (d) All of the above
  135.  Which of the following is not a fundamental element of Models of Teaching?
    (a) Focus
    (b) Syntax
    (c) The support system
    (d) Observation
  136. Which of the following is not an example of information processing model of teaching?
    (a) Inquiry training Model
    (b) Concept Attainment Model
    (c) Inductive Thinking Model
    (d) Classroom Meeting Model
  137. Which of the following is not an example of software ?
    (a) MS – Word
    (b) MS – Excel
    (c) MS – Power point
    (d) Touch pad
  138. In which business organization the liability is normally limited?
    (a) Sole trader
    (b) Partnership
    (c) Joint Hindu family business
    (d) Company
  139. Which form of business organization is complicated and expensive?
    (a) Sole proprietorship
    (b) Partnership firm
    (c) Joint Hindu family business
    (d) Company
  140. Policy formulation is the function of ______.
    (a) Top level managers
    (b) Middle level managers
    (c) Operational managers
    (d) All of the above
  141. Which is not a function of management?
    (a) Planning
    (b) Staffing
    (c) Co- operation
    (d) Controlling
  142. Unpaid seller can exercise the right of resale of the goods when_______.
    (a) Goods is of perishable nature
    (b) Goods has not been transferred to the buyer
    (c) Buyer has become insolvent
    (d) None of the above
  143. Who can enter into a valid contract?
    (a) Minor
    (b) Insolvent
    (c) Mentally
    (d) Major husband & wife
  144. Tenure of a member of National Commission under Consumer Protection Act is________.
    (a) 5 Years or up to 60 years of age whichever is earlier
    (b) 5 Years or up to 65 years of age whichever is earlier
    (c) 5 Years or up to 70 years of age whichever is earlier
    (d) 5 Years or up to 75 years of age whichever is earlier
  145. ‘Management by Exception’ Principal applies in
    (a) Complicated situations
    (b) General situations
    (c) Both a & 2
    (d) None of the above
  146. Which one of the following statement is false?
    (a) The advertisement increases the prices
    (b) The business and the profit do not increase due to advertisement
    (c) The advertisement can be misleading.
    (d) The advertisement increases extravagance.
  147. According to Fayol, “An employee should receive orders from one superior only” this statement is related to
    (a) Principal of unity of command
    (b) Principal of unity of Direction
    (c) Principal of Order
    (d) Principal of centralization
  148. Indian Contract Act was implemented-
    (a) 1st Aril,1857
    (b) 5th January, 1872
    (c) 26th January , 1950
    (d) 25th April,1872

Answer Key

1 (d) 2 (b) 3 (d) 4 (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (b) 8 (b) 9 (d) 10 (c) 11 (d) 12 (d) 13 (*) 14 (d) 15 (c) 16 (a) 17 (b) 18 (d) 19 (b) 20 (*) 21 (d) 22 (*) 23 (a) 24 (a) 25 (b) 26 (a) 27 (d) 28 (b) 29 (d) 30 (d) 31 (a) 32 (d) 33 (d) 34 (a) 35 (c) 36 (a) 37 (d) 38 (c) 39 (c) 40 (d) 41 (d) 42 (c) 43 (c) 44 (c) 45 (d) 46 (c) 47 (b) 48 (c) 49 (a) 50 (b) 51 (b) 52 (b) 53 (d) 54 (b) 55 (d) 56 (b) 57 (d) 58 (c) 59 (c) 60 (a) 61 (b) 62 (c) 63 (b) 64 (c) 65 (b) 66 (a) 67 (c) 68 (b) 69 (b) 70 (a) 71 (b) 72 (b) 73 (a) 74 (d) 75 (d) 76 (d) 77 (a) 78 (b) 79 (c) 80 (d) 81 (c) 82 (c) 83 (c) 84 (d) 85 (a) 86 (*) 87 (a) 88 (b) 89 (a) 90 (a) 91 (b) 92 (a) 93 (a) 94 (c) 95 (b) 96 (b) 97 (d) 98 (b) 99 (b) 100 (*)101(b) 102 (d) 103 (b) 104 (c) 105 (b) 106 (b) 107 (a) 108 (*) 109 (a) 110 (d) 111 (d) 112 (*) 113 (b) 114 (b) 115 (d) 116 (c) 117 (b) 118 (d) 119 (d) 120 (d) 121 (b) 122 (a) 123 (b) 124 (c) 125 (*) 126 (d) 127 (d) 128 (a) 129 (b) 130 (c) 131 (c) 132 (b) 133 (*) 134 (a) 135 (c) 136 (a) 137 (d) 138 (d) 139 (d) 140 (d) 141 (d) 142 (a) 143 (c) 144 (a) 145 (d) 146 (c) 147 (a) 148 (b) 149 (a) 150 (*)

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