MPhil PhD Ignou Commerce 2020

  1. A filter question is one that
    (a) Ensures that all respondents are asked every question on the schedules and in the same order
    (b) Leaves a space for respondents to write long and detailed answer
    (c) Helps the interviewer to avoid asking irrelevant question by directing them elsewhere on the schedule
    (d) Allows supervisors to distinguish between good and bad interviewers
  2. You should avoid using double-barreled questions in a survey because_____.
    (a) They rely too much on a respondent’s memory
    (b) They make the questions too long,so respondents lose interest
    (c) They are too abstract and general in scope
    (d) They confuse respondents by asking about two different things
  3. What is the difference between interval/ratio and ordinal variables?
    (a) The distance between categories is equal across the range of interval/ratio data
    (b) Ordinal data can be rank ordered,but interval/ratio data cannot
    (c) Interval/ratio variables only two categories
    (d) Ordinal variables have a fixed zero point,whereas interval/ratio variables do not
  4. The test that is used to assets the relationship between two ordinal variables is
    (a) Spearman’s rank correlation
    (b) Phi
    (c) Cramer’s V
    (d) Chi-Square
  5. While cross-tabulating two variables it is conventional to
    (a) Represent the independent variable in rows and the dependent variable in columns.
    (b) Assign both the dependent and independent variables to columns.
    (c) Represent the dependent variable in rows and the independent variable in columns.
    (d) Assign both the dependent and independent variables to rows.
  6. Which of the following is not the goal of an exploratory study?
    (a) Discover future research tasks
    (b) Expand understanding of a topic
    (c) Test hypotheses
    (d) Develop hypotheses
  7. A triangulation is
    (a) Using three quantitative or three qualitative methods in a project
    (b) Cross-checking the results found by different research strategies
    (c) Allowing theoretical concepts to emerge from the data
    (d) Drawing a triangular diagram to represent the relations between three concepts
  8. Type-l Error occurs if_____.
    (a) The null hypothesis is rejected even though it is true
    (b) The null hypothesis is accepted even though it is false
    (c) Both the null hypothesis as well as alternative hypothesis are rejected
    (d) Both the null hypothesis as well as alternative hypothesis are accepted
  9. The population census carried out by the Government of India can be an example of_______.
    (a) Descriptive research
    (b) Exploratory research
    (c) Casual research
    (d) Experimental research
  10. Which technique is generally followed when the population is finite?
    (a) Purposive sampling technique
    (b) Area sampling technique
    (c) Systematic sampling technique
    (d) Judgmental sampling technique
  11. A technique of building up a list or a sample of a special population by using an initial set of members as informants is called_______.
    (a) Quota sampling
    (b) Convenience sampling
    (c) Snowball sampling
    (d) Purposive sampling
  12. Population value is called_____.
    (a) Statistic
    (b) Parameter
    (c) Variable
    (d) Core value
  13. The process not needed in experimental researches is_______.
    (a) Reference collection
    (b) Controlling
    (c) Observation
    (d) Manipulation and replication
  14. All cause non-sampling errors except______.
    (a) Faulty tools of measurement
    (b) Defect in data collection
    (c) Non-response
    (d) Inadequate sample
  15. Why is data analysis concerned with data reduction?
    (a) Because far too much data is collected than is required
    (b) Because we need to make sense of the data
    (c) Because of the repetitions in answers to questionnaires
    (d) Because the sample size has been exceeded
  16. Internal validity refers to:
    (a) Whether or not there is really a causal relationship between two variables
    (b) Whether or not findings are relevant to the participants everyday lives
    (c) The degree to which the researcher feels that this was a worthwhile project
    (d) How accurately the measurements represent underlying concepts
  17. In an experimental design the dependent variable is
    (a) The one that is not manipulated and in which any changes are observed
    (b) The one that is manipulated in order to observe any effects on the other
    (c) A measure of the extent to which personal values affect research
    (d) An ambiguous concept whose meaning depends on how it is defined
  18. Which two of the following are legitimate frameworks for setting out a literature review:
    1. Constructing inter-textual coherence
    2. Deconstruction of textual coherence
    3. Problematizing the situation
    4. Resolving discovered problems
    (a) I and II
    (b) II and III
    (c) I and III
    (d) II and IV
  19. What is self-plagiarism?
    (a) When a person lifts material that they have previously written and pass it off as their own
    (b) Taking about your work too much
    (c) using somebody else’s work and passing it off as your own
    (d) An epistemological stance
  20. The split-half method is used as a test of
    (a) Stability
    (b) Reliability
    (c) Inter-observer consistency
    (d) External validity
  21. Quantitative social researchers rarely claim to have established causality because:
    (a) They are more concerned with publishing the results of their reliability tests
    (b) They do not believe that this is an appropriate goal to be striving for
    (c) They keep forgetting which of the variables they have manipulated
    (d) They tend to use cross-sectional designs,which produce only correlations
  22. The standard error is a statistical measure of
    (a) The normal distribution of scores around the sample mean
    (b) The extent to which a sample mean is likely to differ from the population mean
    (c) The clustering of scores at each end of a survey scale
    (d) The degree to which a sample has been accurately stratified
  23. Which of the following is not a characteristic of quota sampling?
    (a) The researcher chooses whom to approach and so might bias the sample
    (b) Those who are available to be surveyed in public places are unlikely to constitute a representative sample
    (c) The random selection of units makes it possible to calculate the standard error
    (d) It is a relatively fast and cheap way of finding out about public opinion
  24. Which of the following is not advised when planning the questions order of a structured interview?
    (a) Beware of asking an either question that alters the salience of later questions
    (b) Expect some variation in the order in which questions are asked
    (c) Leave questions about sensitive or embarrassing issues until later in the interview
    (d) Group the questions into logically organized sections
  25. In order to identity response sets in a likert scale, you could
    (a) Pre-code all items consistently from 1-5
    (b) Reverse the scoring of pre-coded answers
    (c) Only include items about socially desirable behaviors
    (d) Include explicit instructions to respondents not to deceive you
  26. Which of the following is not a type of sampling used in structured observation?
    (a) Focal sampling
    (b) Scan sampling
    (c) Emotional sampling
    (d) Behavior sampling
  27. Which of the following is not an advantage of content analysis?
    (a) It allows us to observe otherwise inaccessible populations at first hand
    (b) It is a transparent and easily replicable technique
    (c) It allows us to track changes in media representations over time
    (d) It is a non-reactive method
  28. A test of statistical significance indicates how confident the researcher is about
    (a) The inter-coder reliability of their structured interview schedule
    (b) Passing their driving test
    (c) Understanding the difference between bivariate and multivariate analysis
    (d) Generalizing their findings from the sample to the population
  29. Setting the p level at 0:01 increases the changes of making a
    (a) Type I error
    (b) Type II error
    (c) Type III error
    (d) Type I and type III error
  30. What is the function of a contingency table,in the context of bivariate analysis?
    (a) IT shows the results you would expect to find by chance
    (b) It summarizes the frequencies of two variables so that they can be compared
    (c) It lists the different levels of p value for tests of significance
    (d) It compares the results you might get from various statistical tests
  31. In SPSS,what is the “Data Viewer”?
    (a) A table summarizing the frequencies of data for one variable
    (b) A spreadsheet into which data can be entered
    (c) A dialog box that allows you to choose a statistical test
    (d) A screen in which variables can be defined and labelled
  32. The device through which the functional relationship is studied and forecasting is made, is called
    (a) Correlation
    (b) Regression
    (c) Time series
    (d) Index number
  33. What can be generalized from a purposive sample?
    (a) That the findings are true for broadly similar cases.
    (b) That the findings are true for the entire population.
    (c) That the findings are false for the entire population.
    (d) That purposive sampling is better than probability sampling.
  34. Which of the following is not one of Kvale’s ten criteria of a good interviewer?
    (a) Passive
    (b) knowledgeable
    (c) Sensitive
    (d) Interpreting
  35. Which is one of the main ethical problems associated with conducting a secondary analysis of qualitative data?
    (a) The participants may not have given informed consent for the reuse of their data
    (b) It involves deceiving respondents about the nature of the research
    (c) The secondary analyst must adopt a covert role and is at risk”going native”
    (d) Respondents are likely to experience physical harm as a result of the process
  36. Which of the following is not one of the contrasts that has been made to distinguish between quantitative and qualitative research?
    (a) Behavior versus meaning
    (b) Numbers versus words
    (c) Traditional versus modern
    (d) Artificial versus natural
  37. In what way does the thematic analysis of interview data suggest quantification?
    (a) It demands the use of computer programs like SPSS
    (b) It is based on numbers rather than text
    (c) It involves establishing the frequency of particular words,phrases or themes
    (d) It is usually followed by a rigorous statistical testing
  38. One or Two tailed test will determine
    (a) If the two extreme values(Minimum or Maximum) Of the sample need to be rejected
    (b) If the hypothesis has one or possible two conclusions
    (c) If the region of rejection is located in one or two tails of the distribution
    (d) If the hypothesis has multiple conclusions
  39. Likert scales are criticized because
    (a) They restrict participant’s answer
    (b) They are too qualitative
    (c) They have too few points on them
    (d) They are too difficult to complete
  40. In a report of quantitative research an empiricist repertoire serves to
    (a) Confuse the reader with long and technical words.
    (b) Demonstrate the researcher’s reflexivity about their role in the research process.
    (c) Give the impression that the results were objective and logically inevitable.
    (d) Provide a confessional tale of what went wrong in the procedure.
  41. Which of the following is not usually found in a report of a quantitative study?
    (a) Measurement
    (b) Results
    (c) Confession
    (d) Validation
  42. The increasing order among levels of measurement is
    (a) Nominal-ratio-interval-ordinal
    (b) Nominal-ordinal-interval-ratio
    (c) Ratio-interval-ordinal-nominal
    (d) Interval-Ratio-nominal-ordinal
  43. Sample design involves the following:
    1. Sampling unit
    2. Size of sample
    3. Type of universe
    4. Source list
    5. Sampling procedure
    which one of the following sequences is correct?
    (a) 1,2,3,4,5
    (b) 3,4,1,2,5
    (c) 3,1,4,2,5
    (d) 3,5,1,4,2
  44. Hypothesis testing consists of following steps:
    (a) Establish a level of significance prior to sampling
    (b) Defining the rejection or critical refions
    (c) State the hypothesis
    (d) Determination of a suitable test statistic
    which of the sequence is correct?
    (a) 2,3,4,1
    (b) 3,1,4,2
    (c) 3,2,4,1
    (d) 4,3,2,1
  45. Which among the following is not a method of establishing validity of measuring instruments?
    (a) Jury opinion of validity
    (b) Face validity
    (c) Content validity
    (d) Split-half-validity
  46. Given the following tests:
    1. x2-test
    2. t-test
    3. f-test
    4. z-test
    the concept of degree of freedom is associated with
    (a) 1 and 2
    (b) 1 and 3
    (c) 1 and 4
    (d) 2,3 and 4
  47. Data integrity refers to the
    (a) Simplicity of data
    (b) privacy of data
    (c) validity of data
    (d) Security of data
  48. The process not needed in experimental research is
    (a) Reference collection
    (b) Controlling
    (c) Observation
    (d) Manipulation
  49. Which of the following is not a type of research question?
    (a) Hypothesis
    (b) Predicting an outcome
    (c) Evaluating an outcome
    (d) Developing good practice
  50. The most widely used method of measuring seasonal variations is
    (a) Ratio-to-moving average method
    (b) Ratio to trend method
    (c) Line relative method
    (d) Time series
  51. Which one of the following would reduce the cash balances of a business and not reduce the profit for the year?
    (a) Interest paid
    (b) Distribution costs
    (c) Wages paid
    (d) Dividends paid
  52. Which one of the following characteristics of a financial report is mentioned in FRS 1?
    (a) Neutrality
    (b) Prudence
    (c) Materiality
    (d) Understand ability
  53. An entity which complies with IFRS may depart from the requirements of an international standard
    (a) Whenever it wishes to do so
    (b) If compliance would produce misleading information
    (c) Never
    (d) If compliance costs would be excessive
  54. Items of financial information are material if
    (a) They could not influence the economic decision made by the users of financial statements
    (b) They are insignificant
    (c) They are aggregated with other items
    (d) They could influence the economic decision made by the users of financial statements
  55. Which of the gains below are not recognized in Replacement cost accounting?
    (a) A holding gain measuring the difference in replacement cost between acquisition and year end dates
    (b) A capital gain
    (c) A holding gain measuring the different in replacement cost between sales and opening year end dates
    (d) An operating gain
  56. Consider the following statements:
    I. CBDT was established in 1963.
    II. Income tax and wealth tax are disallowed expenditure in the business.
    III. Interest on loan taken by a partner from a firm shall be taxable under the head income from other source.
    which of the following statements(s) is/are correct?
    (a) I,II,III
    (b) I,II
    (c)I,III
    (d) III
  57. PLA stands for
    (a) Personalized ledger account
    (b) Personal ledger account
    (c) Privilege leave allowed
    (d) Personal ledger amount
  58. STC stands for
    (a) Sales tax code
    (b) Service transition code
    (c) Service trader code
    (d) Service tax code
  59. Income of an individual being a Sikkimese is covered under section
    (a) 10(22b)
    (b) 10(20)
    (c) 10(32)
    (d) 10(6AAA)
  60. Consider the following statements:
    I. 5% of depreciation is charged on buildings which are used mainly for residential purpose except hotels and boarding houses.
    II. 30% depreciation is charged on computers including computer software’s,books and gas cylinders.
    III. 40% of depreciation is charged on aeroplanes -aero engines.
    which of the following are correct?
    (a) I,II
    (b) II,III
    (c) I,II,III
    (d) I,III
  61. Which of the following plurilateral trade agreements advocates that the foreign suppliers and foreign goods and services must be given no less favorable treatment in government procurement than national suppliers of goods and service?
    (a) Trade in civil aircraft
    (b) International dairy product
    (c) International bovine and meat products
    (d) Public procurement
  62. Trade away from countries outside the regional economic grouping to countries within the regional economic grouping is referred to as
    (a) Trade creation
    (b) Terms of trade
    (c) Easy of entry
    (d) Trade diversion
  63. Based on statement A and B answer the following questions:
    A. Instability in export earnings of developing countries is caused by both demand and supply factors.
    B. Instability in export earnings may not lead to pressure on balance of payments.
    (a) Only A is correct
    (b) Only B is correct
    (c) Both A and B are correct
    (d) Both A and B are wrong
  64. Violating the patents and copyrights of other firms is known as
    (a) Dumping
    (b) Grey marketing’s
    (c) Counterfeiting
    (d) restrictive trade practices
  65. On the basis of statements A and B answer the following questions.
    A. Void agreement is enforceable by law.
    B. Illegal agreements is not enforceable by law.
    (a) Only A is correct
    (b) Only B is correct
    (c) Both A and B are correct
    (d) A is wrong and B is correct
  66. In which of the following international marketing pricing methods,lower than the ruling market price is charged?
    (a) Different pricing
    (b) Marginal cost pricing
    (c) Penetration pricing
    (d) Probe pricing
  67. In which of the following price quotation and terms of sale, the exporter undertakes to make the goods available at his place of business or warehouse?
    (a) FOB
    (b) Ex-works
    (c) CIF
    (d) FAS
  68. Which of the following international promotion mix unpaid message?
    (a) Advertising
    (b) Personal selling
    (c) Sales promotion
    (d) Publicity
  69. Based on statements A and B answer the following questions:
    A. Mass production of international services is not difficult.
    B. The role of personnel deserves special consideration in the marketing of international services.
    (a) Only A is correct
    (b) Only B is correct
    (c) Both A and B are correct
    (d) A is wrong and B is correct
  70. Under GATS the supply of the services of doctors falls under which mode of supply of international services?
    (a) Cross-border supply
    (b) Consumption abroad
    (c) Presence of natural persons
    (d) Commercial presence
  71. At a Break-even point,fixed cost is always
    (a) Equal to contribution
    (b) More than contribution
    (c) Less than contribution
    (d) Equal to variable cost
  72. The method of raising equity capital from existing members by offering securities on pro-rate basis is referred to as
    (a) Bonus issue
    (b) Private placement
    (c) Public issue
    (d) Rights issue
  73. Which of the following is not an assumption of economic order quality model?
    (a) The demand is even throughout the year
    (b) There is no delay in placing and receiving order
    (c) Cost of carrying is a fixed proportion of the average value of inventory
    (d) Cost per order is proportional to the size of the order
  74. The risk free stock has a beta of
    (a) -1
    (b) Zero
    (c) 0-5
    (d) 1
  75. Which of the following does not fall under money market?
    (a) RBI
    (b) Commercial bank
    (c) Sebi
    (d) Cooperative banks
  76. Which of the following is measured by financial leverage?
    (a) Sensitivity of EPS with respect to percentage change in EBIT
    (b) Percentage change in the level of production
    (c) Sensitivity of EBIT with respect to percentage change in production
    (d) Both sensitivity of EPS with respect to percentage change in EBIT and percentage change in the level of production
  77. Which of the following is an example of a derivative security??
    (a) Equity shares
    (b) Bonds
    (c) Call option
    (d) Both equity shares and bonds
  78. Money borrowed/lent for a day/overnight is called
    (a) Call money
    (b) Call option
    (c) Put option
    (d) Spot money
  79. Which of the following is called gilt-edged securities in India?
    (a) Securities issued by multinationals
    (b) Securities issued by the government
    (c) Securities issued by private companies
    (d) Securities issued by public companies
  80. Which of the following schemes is meant for investments purposes?
    (a) Mutual funds
    (b) National savings certificates
    (c) Letter of credit
    (d) Both mutual funds and national savings certificates
  81. Cultivating option leaders and getting them to spread information about a product or service to other in their communities is
    (a) Word of mouth influence
    (b) Buzz marketing
    (c) Reference marketing
    (d) Publicity
  82. A ban on the import of a certain product is turned as
    (a) Quota
    (b) Embargo
    (c) Exchange control
    (d) Tariff
  83. Which of the following guides the development of advertisements and personal sales presentations?
    (a) AIEA
    (b) AIBA
    (c) AICA
    (d) AIDA
  84. Starbucks uses the same green and black logo on its paper cups and sells the same concept all around the world. This is an example of which of the following?
    (a) Standardization orientation approach
    (b) Combination market approach
    (c) Product extension approach
    (d) Traditional marketing concept
  85. The solution to a price competition is to develop a different
    (a) Product,price and promotion
    (b) Offer,delivery and image
    (c) Package and label
    (d) International website
  86. Which of the following are the people who purchase new products almost as soon as the products reach the market?
    (a) Early majority
    (b) Innovators
    (c) Laggards
    (d) Late majority
  87. According to service quality model willingness of employees to solve problems of customers is classified as
    (a) Responsiveness
    (b) Assurance
    (c) Reliability
    (d) Empathy
  88. Companies should have responsibilities towards vulnerable customers,which of the following providers the widest definition of a vulnerable customer?
    (a) Underprivileged individual with low levels of educational achievement.
    (b) Individuals who have special medical or delivery requirements that may not be served by profit-seeking commercial companies.
    (c) Any individual over whom a company has a high level of power which leaves the individual unable to effectively apply their own judgment.
    (d) Individual who have been given a protection order by a court.
  89. Portfolio analysis is useful in
    (a) Adding, modifying or deleting a produce from the product mix
    (b) Pricing
    (c) Promotion
    (d) Physical distribution
  90. The concept of three Es of sustainability are
    (a) Economic,Etiquette and Environmental
    (b) Environmental,Economic and Equitable
    (c) Environmental,Etiquette and Equitable
    (d) Ecological,Equitable and Economic
  91. Schumpeter considered that innovative entrepreneurs would
    (a) Thrive
    (b) Disappear
    (c) Be absorbed within large innovative firms
    (d) Be absorbed within non-innovative firms
  92. The following is concerned with developing a part of candidates in line with the human resource plan:
    (a) Development
    (b) Training
    (c) Recruitment
    (d) Selection
  93. Approaches to the study of leadership which emphasizes the personality of the leader are
    (a) Contingency theory
    (b) Group theories
    (c) Trait theories
    (d) Inspirational theories
  94. Leading writer of contingency theory of leadership is
    (a) Fred fiedler
    (b) Rensis Likert
    (c) Rosabeth Kanter
    (d) Joan Woodward
  95. ERG theory emphasises on three needs,they are
    (a) Existence,Relatedness,Growth
    (b) Empathy,Relation,Growth
    (c) Existence,Reputation,Growth
    (d) Empathy,Relatedness,Grief
  96. India does not have bilateral trade agreement with
    (a) Carribean community
    (b) Gulf Cooperation council
    (c) Sri lanka
    (d) ASEAN
  97. Reserve Bank of India does not deal with
    (a) Treasury bills
    (b) Regulation of interest rates
    (c) Mutual funds
    (d) Non-banking finance companies
  98. India recently put trade embargo on
    (a) USA
    (b) China
    (c) Malaysia
    (d) Sri Lanka
  99. The same of the recently held annual meeting of World Economic Forum at Davos was
    (a) To discourage regional trade organisation
    (b) To strengthen globalization
    (c) Stakeholders for a cohesive and sustainable world
    (d) To take measure to check global warming
  100. In recent years the main criticism of globalization has been
    (a) To induce competition
    (b) To bring new technology
    (c) To create jobs
    (d) To grow income inequality