M Com Entrance Question Delhi University – 2021

M. Com Entrance Question Paper Delhi University  – 2021 Patter Analysis

Units Subjects No. of Questions  
Unit 1 Financial Accounting 5 1-5
Corporate Accounting 5 6-10
Cost & Management Accounting 5 11-15
Auditing 5 16-20
Unit 2 Business Statistics 7  21-27
Business Mathematics 7  28-34
Income Tax 6  35-40
Unit 3

Micro Economics 7 41-47
Macro Economics  7 48-54 
Indian Economy & Recent Development  6  55-60
Unit 4 General Management 4  61-64
Business Law 4  65-68
Company Law 4  69-72
Corporate Governance & Entrepreneurship 7  73-79
 Unit 5 Financial Management 6  80-85
Human Resource Management 5  86-90
Marketing Management 5  91-95
International Business  5  96-100
    100  
  1. Rohan Ltd. has bought a piece of machinery. Before ensuring that the machine is a condition of operation for the intended purpose, it operates a trial run. In this trial run, the machine produces 5 units of product @ Rs. 99 per piece. The fair market price of such product, being standard, is Rs.119 per piece. But these products, being extremely sub‐standard, are sold in the market @ Rs.33 per piece. The amount of cost to be added to the machinery for initial recognition is
    (a) Rs. 660
    (b) Rs. 330
    (c) Rs. 495
    (d) Rs. 165
  2. In the case of a problem based on the insolvency of partners as per Garner V. Murray case, a partner, though solvent, has a credit balance in his capital account on the date of dissolution but has a debit balance in his capital account after sharing the loss on realization. Such a partner should:
    (a) Neither share the loss of an insolvent partner nor bring in his share of realization loss in cash
    (b) Only share the loss of an insolvent partner
    (c) Share the loss of an insolvent partner and also bring in his share of realization loss in cash
    (d) Only bring the realization loss in cash
  3. Standard cost method related to the valuation of inventory of finished goods and work‐in‐progress is:
    (a) Only a method of determination of cost for the purpose of valuation of inventory
    (b) Only a method of valuation of inventory
    (c) Both a method of determination of cost for the purpose of valuation of inventory and also a method of valuation of inventory
    (d) Neither a method of determination of cost for the purpose of valuation of inventory nor a method of valuation of inventory
  4. As per Accounting Standard (AS) 10 ‘Property, Plant and Equipment’, the costs for regular major inspection for faults as a condition of continuing to operate an item of property, plant and equipment (PPE):
    (a) Should not be recognized in the carrying amount of that item of PPE even if decided by the management of the entity
    (b) Should be recognized in the carrying amount of that item of PPE only if decided by the management of the entity
    (c) Should be charged as an expense in the period in which these costs are incurred
    (d) Should be recognized in the carrying amount of that item of PPE and additionally, the carrying amount of previous inspection or if the carrying amount of previous inspection is not determinable, the cost thereof should be derecognized
  5. Under ‘Stock and Debtors’ method related to a dependent inland branch, for abnormal loss of stock at branch, besides credit to ‘Branch Stock A/c’ by ‘Branch Profit and Loss A/c’ and ‘Branch Adjustment A/c’
    (a) Only cost of abnormal loss is debited to ‘Branch Profit and Loss A/c
    (b) Only loading margin of abnormal loss is debited to ‘Branch Adjustment A/c’
    (c) Neither cost of abnormal loss is debited to ‘Branch Profit and Loss A/c’ nor is loading margin of abnormal loss debited to ‘Branch Adjustment A/c’
    (d) Cost of abnormal loss is debited to ‘Branch Profit and Loss A/c’ and loading margin of abnormal loss is debited to ‘Branch Adjustment A/c’
  6. Unless otherwise stated a Preference Share is always deemed to be
    (a) Cumulative, Non‐Participating and Non‐Convertible.
    (b) Non‐Cumulative, Non‐Participating and Non‐Convertible.
    (c) Cumulative, Participating and Non‐Convertible.
    (d) Cumulative, Participating and Convertible.
  7. In the Balance Sheet of a company, Reserve Capital
    (a) is required to be disclosed under Authorised Capital.
    (b) is required to be disclosed under Issued Capital.
    (c) is required to be disclosed under Subscribed Capital.
    (d) is not required to be disclosed.
  8. An item of Income or Expenditure is to be disclosed separately as per The Companies Act, 2013 if its amount exceeds
    (a) 1% of the revenue from operations or Rs.1,00,000, whichever is higher;
    (b) 1% of the revenue from operations or Rs.1,00,000, whichever is lower;
    (c) 1% of the revenue from operations or Rs.10,00,000, whichever is higher;
    (d) 1% of the revenue from operations or Rs.10,00,000, whichever is lower;
  9. Net Profits of AATMA Ltd. for the years 2020‐2021,2019‐2020,2018‐2019,2017‐2018,2016‐2017 are Rs.25 crore,Rs. 20crore,Rs. 15 crore,Rs.10 crore and Rs.5 crore respectively. During 2020‐2021,the company incurred Rs.7,00,000 and Rs.3,00,000 on free education and medical treatment of the employees of the company and their families respectively under CSR projects. State the short fall of expenditure on Corporate Social Responsibility as per The Companies Act,2013.
    (a) Rs.40,00,000
    (b) Rs.30,00,000
    (c) Rs.20,00,000
    (d) Rs.10,00,000
  10. On 31st March, 2021, Equity Shares of Rs.10 each fully paid: Rs.198 crore, 12% Red Pref. Share Capital: Rs.42 Crore,Securities Premium: Rs.10 crore, General Reserve:Rs.200 crore, Infrastructure Development Reserve (Statutory Reserve):Rs.70 crore,Capital Redemption Reserve:Rs.30 crore, Plant Revaluation Reserve :Rs.8 crore. On 1st April, 2021, The company has offered buy back price at 20% over the Market Price. Market Price per share is ₹ 25. Calculate the Maximum permissible number of Equity Shares that can be bought back as per The Companies Act,2013.
    (a) 4.95 crores
    (b) 3.75 crores
    (c) 2.25 crores
    (d) 1.75 crores
  11. Under FSN system of inventory control, inventory is classified on the basis of :‐
    (a) Volume of material consumption
    (b) Frequency of usage of items of inventory
    (c) Criticality of the item of inventory for production
    (d) Value of items of inventory
  12. The repairs and maintenance expenses of a machinery at 6,000 machine hours run is Rs.1,12,000. If it runs for 9,000 machine hours, it will incur repairs and maintenance cost of Rs.1,48,000. What will this cost at 12,000 machine hours run?
    (a) Rs.2,24,000
    (b) Rs.1,94,000
    (c) Rs.1,84,000
    (d) Rs.1,74,000
  13. Controllable variances are best disposed‐off by transferring to:‐
    (a) Cost of goods sold
    (b) Inventories of WIP and Finished Goods
    (c) Cost of goods sold and inventories
    (d) Costing profit and loss account
  14. A material of 7,500 kgs. was introduced in the process and the expected loss is 8% and if the actual output is 7,050 kgs. then there is a‐
    (a) Abnormal Gain of 200 kgs.
    (b) Abnormal Loss of 150 kgs.
    (c) Abnormal Gain of 150 kgs.
    (d) Abnormal Loss of 200 kgs
  15. A company earned a profit of 80,000 on the sales of Rs.4,00,000 in period 1. It’s profit increases by Rs 20,000 on the sales of Rs.4,50,000 in period 2. The company will achieve its BEP at :‐
    (a) Rs. 1,20, 000
    (b) Rs. 80, 000
    (c) Rs. 1,60, 000
    (d) Rs. 2,00, 000
  16. Statutory audit is:
    (a) A certificate as to the correctness of the financial statements.
    (b) An assurance as to the viability of the business of the entity
    (c) A guarantee that the books of accounts are free from errors and frauds
    (d) An expression of opinion on the true and fair view of the financial statements
  17. Who prepares the Audit Programme for conducting an audit?
    (a) The Auditor
    (b) The Client
    (c) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
    (d) The National Financial Reporting Authority
  18. Which of the following is true for Internal Audit in India?
    (a) Optional for all the companies
    (b) Compulsory only for the public sector entities
    (c) Compulsory only for the listed companies
    (d) Mandatory for all listed companies and other specified companies.
  19. The objective of ‘Vouching’ is ……..
    (a) To ensure that the assets and liabilities of the entity exist on the date of the balance sheet.
    (b) To establish the accuracy and authenticity of the accounting entries in the books of accounts.
    (c) To ensure that the assets and liabilities are in possession of the entity
    (d) To ensure that assets of the entity are properly valued
  20. Who appoints the first auditor of a company (other than a government company)?
    (a) The Registrar of Companies
    (b) The National Company Law Tribunal
    (c) Audit Committee of the company
    (d) Board of Directors of the company
  21. The mean of 15 observations is 40. The mean of first 8 observations is 36 and the mean of last 8 observations is 42.What is the value of the 8 observation?
    (a) 24
    (b) 40
    (c) 48
    (d) 26
  22. Suppose that approximately 15% of the people are left‐handed. If two people are selected at random, what is the probability that one is right‐handed and the other is left‐handed?
    (a) 0.1275
    (b) 0.255
    (c) 0.9775
    (d) 0.745
  23. Which of the following is not a property of the coefficient of correlation?
    (a) The coefficient of correlation lies between ‐1 and +1.
    (b) The coefficient of correlation depends on the change of scale.
    (c) The coefficient of correlation is the geometric mean of two regression coefficients.
    (d) The coefficient of correlation gives the direction of relationship between variables.
  24. Which of the following is a relative measure of dispersion?
    (a) Range
    (b) Geometric mean
    (c) Coefficient of variation
    (d) Quartile deviation
  25. In which of the following cases can we use the binomial probability distribution?
    (a) To calculate the probability of travelling more than 15 kms on 1 litre of petrol.
    (b) To calculate the probability that students in a class study between 1 hour and 3 hours per day for a certain paper.
    (c) To calculate the probability that a bulb lasts for a longer time than the advertised figure.
    (d) To calculate the probability of getting an even number twice on rolling of a dice six times.
  26. Prosperity, recession and depression in a business is an example of which of the following:
    (a) Irregular trend
    (b) Secular trend
    (c) Cyclical trend
    (d) Seasonal trend
  27. If the right tail in a distribution is longer than the left tail, then the distribution is:
    (a) Positively skewed
    (b) Negatively skewed
    (c) Symmetrical
    (d) Scattered
  28. A certain sum of money is invested at 4% p.a. compounded annually. If interest for second year is Rs.25 interest for 4 year will be Rs.
    (a) 25
    (b) 27
    (c) 26
    (d) 27.04
  29. The demand function of a product is X = 300 – P . It will have unitary price elasticity of demand at P equal to Rs.
    (a) 12
    (b) 9
    (c) 8
    (d) 10
  30. Marginal cost function of a product is MC(X) = 3 (3X + 4) with a fixed cost of Rs.2.00. Its per unit cost when firm produces 7 units will be Rs.
    (a) 2
    (b) 8/7
    (c) 8/3
    (d) 8/5
  31. A machine costing Rs.C is depreciated at 100 r % p.a. using diminishing balance method. Its book value after 2 years will be –
    (a) C(1‐r)
    (b) C(1‐r )
    (c) C(1‐r)
    (d) C(r ‐1)
  32. A bill of Rs.5000 discounted by a customer with his bank due after 3 months. Bank charges discount at 12% p.a. Customer will get Rs.
    (a) 4800
    (b) 4900
    (c) 4850
    (d) 4950
  33. If the price elasticity of demand of a product is unitary at all levels, its demand function will be –
    (a) P = X
    (b) PX=Constant
    (c) P = X
    (d) X=P
  34. Mr. X, a non‐Government employee, received Rs. 28,00,000 as cash equivalent of leave salary at the time of his retirement on 28 February 2021. The maximum amount which can be exempt in this case will be:
    (a) Rs. 3,00,000
    (b) Rs. 3,50,000
    (c) Rs. 10,00,000
    (d) Rs. 20,00,000
  35. While computing the value of perquisite in respect of motor car sold by the employer to the employee on 31 January 2021, the following percentage and method will be followed:
    (a) 10% on straight line method
    (b) 20% on straight line method
    (c) 10% on written down value method
    (d) 20% on written down value method
  36. For the assessment year 2021‐22, ………. of any sum paid to a National Laboratory with a specific direction that the said sum shall be used for scientific research undertaken under a programme approved in this behalf by the prescribed authority is allowed as deduction under section 35 while computing income under the head Profits and Gains of Business or Profession.
    (a) 100%
    (b) 125%
    (c) 175%
    (d) 200%
  37. Mr. X, a resident individual, has earned a short‐term capital gain (covered under section 111 A) of Rs. 4,00,000 and business income of Rs. 50,000 during the assessment year 2021‐22. He has also invested Rs. 3,00,000 on 29 March 2021 which is eligible for deduction under section 80 C. In this case, the amount of deduction under section 80 C for the assessment year 2021‐22 will be:
    (a) Nil
    (b) Rs. 50,000
    (c) Rs. 1,50,000
    (d) Rs. 3,00,000
  38. Mr. X gifts debentures of a private company of Rs. 10,00,000 to his wife, Mrs. X, without consideration. She earned interest of Rs. 1,00,000 on these debentures which she reinvested and then earned an interest of Rs. 10,000 on this reinvested amount. Assuming the assessment year 2021‐22 is applicable, this Rs. 10,000 will be taxable in the hands of:
    (a) Mr. X
    (b) Mrs. X
    (c) Exempt from tax
    (d) Mr. X or Mrs. X, depending upon the Assessing Officer
  39. Mr. X supplies interior designing services to Mr. Y. The location of Mr. X is Tamil Nadu and location of Mr. Y is Canada. In such a situation, the place of supply of service will be determined as per:
    (a) Section 7 of the CGST Act
    (b) Section 7 of the IGST Act
    (c) Section 13 of the CGST Act
    (d) Section 13 of the IGST Act
  40. A good is subject to periodic increase in supply. Each time supply increases, the supplier finds the total revenue decreasing.Which of the following must be true of the good.
    (a) It is an inferior good
    (b) It has price inelastic supply
    (c) It is a superior good
    (d) It has price inelastic demand
  41. Which of the following sets of commodities are likely to have positive cross elasticity of demand?
    (a) Aluminium & Plastic.
    (b) Pencil & Paper.
    (c) Men’s and women’s shoes.
    (d) Jam & Cheese.
  42. An increase in the demand for a firm’s output
    (a) increases the prosperity of the firm but decreases the prosperity of the factors hired by the firm
    (b) decreases the prosperity of the firm but increases the prosperity of the factors hired by the firm
    (c) increases the prosperity of both the firm & the factors hired by the firm
    (d) decreases the prosperity of both the firm & the factors hired by the firm
  43. Indifference curve for perfect substitutes are
    (a) straight line
    (b) bowed inward
    (c) bowed outward
    (d) right angles
  44. Which of the statement about production function is correct
    (a) It shows the minimum output the inputs can produce
    (b) It relates employment of inputs to output
    (c) It identifies output cost relationships
    (d) It identifies the profit maximizing level of output
  45. If the average product of labour when 5 workers are employed is 10 and when 6 workers are employed is 12, then
    (a) The MP curve lies above the average product curve between 5 and 6 workers
    (b) The Marginal Product curve lies below the average product curve between 5 and 6 workers
    (c) The total product curve is decreasing between 5 and 6 workers
    (d) Marginal product is negative
  46. In the long run, the competitive firm’s supply curve is the
    (a) entire Marginal Cost curve
    (b) portion of Marginal cost curve that lies above Average total cost curve
    (c) portion of Marginal cost curve that lies above Average variable total cost curve
    (d) upward sloping portion of the average variable cost curve
  47. Choose the correct combination of economic theory and economist who has contributed to it.
    (a) Theory of Rent by AC Pigou
    (b) Inflation Rate and Unemployment Rate Trade‐off by AW Phillips
    (c) Theory of Absolute Advantage of Trade by David Ricardo
    (d) Theory of Liquidity Preference by John Williamson
  48. Which of the following economic variables is not a flow variable?
    (a) Profit
    (b) Wage
    (c) Exchange Rate
    (d) Rent
  49. Given below are two statements
    Statement I: According to the Keynesian Theory of Income Determination, given all other components of autonomous
    aggregate demand unchanged, the rise in tax rate leads to rise in equilibrium level of income.
    Statement II: According to the Keynesian Theory of Income Determination, given all other components of autonomous
    aggregate demand unchanged, the rise in Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) leads to fall in equilibrium level of income.
    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
    (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
    (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
    (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
    (d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
  50. A. Given all other determinants of money supply constant, the rise in Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) leads to fall in equilibrium money supply.
    B. Given all other determinants of money supply constant, the rise in Currency‐Deposit Ratio leads to fall in equilibrium money supply.
    C. Given all other determinants of money supply constant, the rise in high powered money leads to rise in equilibrium money supply.
    D. Given all other determinants of money supply constant, the rise in Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) leads to rise in equilibrium money supply.
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A, B and D only
    (b) A, B and C only
    (c) B, C and D only
    (d) C and D only
  51. Given below are two statements
    Statement I: According to Quantity Theory of Money, the rise in nominal money supply leads to rise in prices given the velocity of money and real output constant.
    Statement II: According to Fisher Equation, rise in nominal money supply leads to rise in real rate of interest. In light of the
    above statements,
    choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
    (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
    (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  52. In the national income accounts, all of the following are classified as government purchases except:
    (a) Payments for procuring military equipments.
    (b) Cash payments made to the people below poverty line.
    (c) Salaries paid to parliamentarians.
    (d) Salaries paid to judicial officers.
  53. Monetary policy is linked to fiscal policy when government spending on health infrastructure is financed by:
    (a) Raising taxes.
    (b) Borrowing from the domestic market sources.
    (c) Printing money by the central bank.
    (d) Cutting down the expenses on purchase of arms equipment.
  54. One Nation One Ration Card Scheme announced recently will
    (a) Enable migrant workers and their family to access PDS benefits from any fair price shop in the country
    (b) Enable people below the poverty line to access PDS benefits from any fair price shop in the country
    (c) Enable people with disabilities to access PDS benefits from any fair price shop in the country
    (d) Enable small and marginal farmers to access PDS benefits from any fair price shop in the country
  55. The National Population Policy of India (NPP) 2000 aims to achieve a stable population by
    (a) 2030
    (b) 2040
    (c) 2045
    (d) 2050
  56. Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) is used by RBI to bring changes in which of the following
    (a) CRR, SLR, Repo and Reverse Repo rates, Bank rate
    (b) CRR, SLR, Repo and Reverse Repo rates
    (c) CRR, SLR only
    (d) Repo and Reverse Repo rates only
  57. Which of the following happens because of DBT(Direct Benefit Transfer)
    (a) Benefits are given directly to the beneficiary in hand
    (b) Money is directly given in hand to the beneficiary
    (c) Money is directly transferred to beneficiaries bank account
    (d) Money is given by the government official directly
  58. Which Indian think tank has been ranked among the top 30 think tanks globally, as per a recent report?
    (a) Observer Research Foundation (ORF)
    (b) NITI Aayog
    (c) Centre for Civil Society (CCS)
    (d) Centre for National Policy Research (CNPR)
  59. Green Revolution was associated with improving the productivity of wheat and other cereals. What is “silver fibre
    revolution” associated with?
    (a) Improving Jute production
    (b) Improving Cotton production
    (c) Improving egg/poultry production
    (d) Improving milk production
  60. Which of the following characteristics best define matrix structure of organisation?
    (a) It is a hybrid between functional and divisional structures.
    (b) A matrix is an array of rows and columns.
    (c) It is a hybrid between network and virtual organisations.
    (d) It is inspired from ‘The Matrix’ series of films.
  61. Which of the following represent the twin most cited criteria of managerial performance?
    (a) Autonomy & Accountability
    (b) Adverse Selection & Moral Hazard
    (c) Effectiveness & Efficiency
    (d) Short Run & Long Run
  62. Which of the following is the discriminating factor between the definitions of market value added (MVA) and economic
    value added (EVA) measures of corporate performance?
    (a) Net Operating Profit After Tax (NOPAT)
    (b) Overall Weighted Cost of Capital
    (c) Value of Debt Capital considered‐ Book Value versus Market Value.
    (d) Value of Equity Capital considered ‐Book Value versus Market Value
  63. Which of the following is the most correct expression of the two factors in Frederick Herzberg’s theory of motivation?
    (a) Hygiene‐Motivation
    (b) Maintenance‐ Motivators
    (c) Satisfiers‐Dissatisfiers
    (d) Lower Order Needs‐ Higher Order Needs
  64. Penalty as provided under the Information and Technology Act 2000 amounting to upto INR one crore is not levied if,any individual or group attempts to
    (a) Damages a computer system
    (b) Damages a computer database
    (c) Disrupts a computer network
    (d) Disrupts a computer system with permission of the owner of computer system
  65. Tampering with Computer Source Document as provided under the Information and Technology Act 2000, is not applied when a person or group of person
    (a) Intentionally conceals a computer source code
    (b) Destroys a computer source code
    (c) Knowingly alters a computer source code
    (d) Unknowingly causes another to conceal a computer source code
  66. Hacking a computer system or network as provided under the Information and Technology Act 2000 is penalized under the Information and Technology Act 2000 with
    (a) Imprisonment of one year and penality of INR 10,000
    (b) Imprisonment of upto three years and penality of INR 100,000
    (c) Imprisonment of upto three years and penality of upto INR 200,000
    (d) Imprisonment of upto three years and penality of upto INR 200,000 or both
  67. The essentials of valid agency, prescribed under the Contract Act, 1872 does not include:
    (a) Privity of contract
    (b) Principal be competent to contract
    (c) Agent must have contractual capacity
    (d) The principal is bound by the acts of his agent
  68. First directors are appointed by the
    (a) Shareholders
    (b) Promoters
    (c) Underwriters
    (d) Managing director
  69. An alternate director can be appointed by
    (a) The shareholders in the annual general meeting
    (b) The board in board meeting by passing special resolution
    (c) The shareholders in the annual general meeting by passing a special resolution
    (d) The board in board meeting by passing resolution
  70. Section 2 (46 ) of the Companies Act, 2013, defines the
    (a) Subsidiary company
    (b) Holding company
    (c) Statutory company
    (d) Associate company
  71. As per the Companies Act 2013, no person shall be eligible to incorporate or become a nominee in more than ________ One Person Company
    (a) One
    (b) Two
    (c) Ten
    (d) Fifteen
  72. Which of the following statement is correct?
    (a) Independent directors are non‐ executive directors
    (b) Nominee Directors are independent directors
    (c) Non‐executive directors are independent directors
    (d) Promoters are non‐executive directors
  73. Choose the board structure Google Inc follows from the options below :
    (a) Two‐Tier
    (b) One‐Tier
    (c) Hybrid
    (d) Continental
  74. Which of the following statement is incorrect
    (a) Chief Executive Officer leads the management team
    (b) In the Anglo ‐ Saxon Model Executive and non‐ Executive directors sit in different boards
    (c) In the German Model Executive and non‐ Executive directors sit in different boards
    (d) India has adopted the Unitary model of Coporate Governance
  75. Corporate Governance is about :
    A. System by which companies are directed and controlled
    B. Rules and procedures for making decisions
    C. Distribution of rights and responsibilities among different participants in the corporation
    (a) A, B & C
    (b) A only
    (c) A & C
    (d) B & A
  76. ________ is one that after implementing a relief package spread over a period not exceeding five years from the commencement of the package, will continue to fulfil its repayment obligations as agreed upon without the help of concessions after the aforesaid period.
    (a) Corporate debt restructuring
    (b) Growth company
    (c) Medium enterprise
    (d) Potentially viable unit
  77. Reconfiguration of existing technology to create process improvement is known as:
    (a) Breakthrough innovation
    (b) Discontinuous innovation
    (c) Dynamically continuous innovation
    (d) Technological innovation
  78. ___________ is a highly creative process involving multiple possible solutions to the problem under consideration.
    (a) Convergent thinking
    (b) Divergent thinking
    (c) Lateral thinking
    (d) Vertical thinking
  79. A financial transaction whereby a business entity sells its accounts receivables to a third party at a discount in exchange for immediate money to finance continued business is called _________.
    (a) Factoring
    (b) Seed funding
    (c) Shotgun approach
    (d) Venture capital
  80. Which of the following is not true for capital budgeting?
    (a) Sunk costs are ignored.
    (b) Opportunity costs are excluded.
    (c) International cash flows are considered.
    (d) Relevant cash flows are considered.
  81. In order to find out cost of capital under CAPM, which of the following is not required?
    (a) Beta factor
    (b) Market rate of return
    (c) Market price of equity share.
    (d) Risk‐ free rate of return
  82. If the fixed cost of production is zero, which one of the following is correct?
    (a) Operating Leverage is zero.
    (b) Financial Leverage is zero.
    (c) Operating Leverage is one.
    (d) Financial Leverage is one.
  83. Dividend irrelevance argument of MM Model is based on :
    (a) Issue of debentures.
    (b) Issue of bonus shares.
    (c) Arbitrage.
    (d) Hedging.
  84. If cash discount is offered to customers, then which of the following would increase ?
    (a) Sales.
    (b) Debtors.
    (c) Debt collection period.
    (d) Cost of production.
  85. Which one of the following is not the objective of Human Resource Management.
    (a) to identify and satisfy individual and group needs through adequate compensation policy
    (b) to decide organizational culture and strategy through managerial consensus
    (c) help attaining organizational goals through proper utilisation of human resource
    (d) creating congenial work environment through desirable working conditions
  86. Compensation Management is ……………….. function of HRM.
    (a) Operative
    (b) Managerial
    (c) Planning
    (d) Controlling
  87. Job Description is part of …………. (choose the option from below)
    (a) Job Specification
    (b) Job Evaluation
    (c) Job Enrichment
    (d) Job Analysis
  88. Psychometric Tests are done in order to assess ………….. (choose appropriate answer from the following)
    (a) Technical ability
    (b) Behavioural adaptability
    (c) Employee performance
    (d) Job satisfaction level
  89. Which one of the following statements concerning Harvard Framework of Human Resource Management is not TRUE.
    (a) It identifies stakeholders’ interest
    (b) It targets long‐term consequences
    (c) It avoids situational factors
    (d) It identifies congruence as one of the HRM outcomes
  90. The set of beliefs held about a particular brand is known as
    (a) Brand recognition
    (b) Brand selection
    (c) Brand image
    (d) Brand preference
  91. The extended Ps of service marketing‐mix is
    (a) People, Product, Place
    (b) Price, Physical evidence, Promotion
    (c) People, Process, Physical evidence
    (d) People, Process, Promotion
  92. ____ are fashions adopted quickly by the public but which peak early and decline very fast.
    (a) Fads
    (b) Generic products
    (c) Arts
    (d) Sporting products
  93. _____ involves charging a high price to achieve the highest possible contribution in a short period of time.
    (a) Penetration pricing
    (b) Skimming
    (c) Psychological pricing
    (d) Transfer pricing
  94. Consumer product channels tend to be ______ industrial product channels
    (a) shorter than
    (b) the same length as
    (c) longer than
    (d) identical to
  95. Which of the following staffing policy requires host country nationals to be recruited to manage subsidiaries, while parent country nationals occupy key positions at corporate headquarters;
    (a) Geocentric Approach
    (b) Ethnocentric Approach
    (c) Polycentric Approach
    (d) Regiocentric Approach
  96. Which of the following theories of International trade assumes 2x2x2 model for explaining the theory?
    (a) The Comparative Advantage Theory
    (b) The Absolute Advantage Theory
    (c) The Opportunity Cost Theory
    (d) The Factor‐Proportions Theory
  97. Which of the following is not a part of Current account of BOP?
    (a) Export of Goods
    (b) Export of Services
    (c) Errors and Omissions
    (d) Income payments
  98. Which of the following is not a feature of Common market under regional integration?
    (a) Eliminating tariff and non‐tariff barriers
    (b) Unified monitory and fiscal policy
    (c) Common External Tariff
    (d) Free movement of product, labour and capital
  99. Which of the following is the correct process of stages of internationalization of a company?
    (a) Domestic company‐ multinational company‐international company‐ transnational company
    (b) Domestic company‐ multinational company ‐ transnational company ‐international company
    (c) Domestic company‐ transnational company‐ international company‐ multinational company
    (d) Domestic company‐international company‐multinational company‐ transnational company