M.Com Entrance Question CU CET 2021

CUET M.Com Entrance 2021

  1. Select the correct word that can be best complete the given sentence:
    Marriages between members of extended family were __________ to strengthen the ties of relationship.
    (a) mentioned
    (b) promoted
    (c) indulged
    (d) performed
  2. From the choices given below select the pair which exhibits the same relationship as the one in capitalized pair of words:
    SOLDIER : REGIMENT
    (a) clown : circus
    (b) actor : troupe
    (c) dancer : ballet
    (d) instrument : musician
  3. Which of the following is correctly spelt
    (a) Surruptitious
    (b) Surepptitious
    (c) Surrepctitious
    (d) Surreptitious
  4. Which of the following is nearest in meaning of the word ‘EDIFY’ ?
    (a) Instruct
    (b) Satisfy
    (c) Amuse
    (d) Consume
  5. There was nobody to attend the ____________ complaints of the passengers.
    (a) on
    (b) in
    (c) to
    (d) for
  6. A post without remuneration is known as
    (a) voluntary
    (b) Sinecure
    (c) sincere
    (d) honorary
  7. Select the most suitable antonym
    EXPEDITION
    (a) Silence
    (b) Explanation
    (c) Undertaking
    (d) Delay
  8. Fill in the blanks with right words :
    Lakshman was initially ________ at the suggestion but later started __________ it himself.
    (a) thrilled, negating
    (b) frowning, rejecting
    (c) impressed, negating
    (d) shocked, advocating
  9. Identify the meaning of the idiom from the options given :
    Miss the boat
    (a) let too much time go by to complete a task
    (b) long for something that you don’t have
    (c) miss out on an opportunity
    (d) not know the difference between right and wrong
  10. These grapes _________ sour
    (a) are testing
    (b) tasted
    (c) taste
    (d) have tested
  11. In a certain code THRIVES is written as SIUHRDU . How is SOULFUL written in that code ?
    (a) VPTKKTE
    (b) VPTKETK
    (c) TPVKKTE
    (d) TNRKMVG
  12. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the expression ?
    1050 ÷ 25 × 51 – 1942 + ?
    (a) 152
    (b) 200
    (c) 252
    (d) 300
  13. There are five statues L, M, N, O and P each of them having different height. Statue L is similar than only statue M. Statue O is smaller than statue N. Statue O is longer than statue P. The height of the tallest statue is 20 feet. The height of the second smallest statue is 11 feet. What will be the height of statue P?
    (a) 9 feet
    (b) 12 feet
    (c) 13 feet
    (d) 15 feet
  14. Ashok started walking towards South. After walking 50 meters he took a right turn and walked 30 meters. He then took a right turn and walked 100 meters. He again took a right turn and walked 30 meters and stopped. How far he from the starting point ?
    (a) 180 meters
    (b) 150 meters
    (c) 50 meters
    (d) none of these
  15. The number, whose square is equal to the difference of the squares of the numbers 68 and 32, is
    (a) 36
    (b) 48
    (c) 60
    (d) 64
  16. Which one of the following is not a prime number?
    (a) 31
    (b) 61
    (c) 71
    (d) 91
  17. 1397 X1397 = ?
    (a) 1981709
    (b) 1951609
    (c) 1836219
    (d) 1902179
  18. What least number must be added to 1056, so that the sum is completely divisible by 23 ?
    (a) 21
    (b) 18
    (c) 3
    (d) 2
  19. Choose the correct answer :
    7845 – ? = 8461 – 3569
    (a) 2953
    (b) 2773
    (c) 3569
    (d) 2352
  20. Which country is called the ‘Land of Fiords’ ?
    (a) Sweden
    (b) Italy
    (c) Norway
    (d) Singapore
  21. The biggest part of the brain is
    (a) cerebrum
    (b) spinal cord
    (c) cerebellum
    (d) brain stem
  22. Name the person who was also known as ‘Deshbandhu’.
    (a) S. Radhakrishnan
    (b) G. K. Gokhale
    (c) Chittaranjan Das
    (d) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
  23. Who is known as ‘The Saint of Gutters’?
    (a) Baba Amte
    (b) Anna Hazare
    (c) Mother Teresa
    (d) None of these
  24. Garampani Sanctuary is located at
    (a) Junagarh, Gujarat
    (b) Diphu, Assam
    (c) Kohima, Nagaland
    (d) Gangtok, Sikkim
  25. The National Rural Health Mission has been launched in the country in______
    (a) 2003
    (b) 2005
    (c) 2007
    (d) 2009

Part B

  1. “Economics is the Science of Wealth” who gave this definition
    (a) J.K. Mehta
    (b) Marshall
    (c) Adam Smith
    (d) Robbins
  2. If a point falls inside the production possibility curve, what does it indicate?
    (a) Resources are overutilized
    (b) resources are underutilized
    (c) there is employment in the economy
    (d) both (b) and (c)
  3. If a price decrease results in your expenditure on a good decreasing, your demand must be
    (a) unit
    (b) inelastic
    (c) linear
    (d) elastic
  4. Regional Rural Banks are designed to work in which of the following ideals?
    (a) Work on innovative and adaptive ideals
    (b) Help the targeted groups
    (c) Keep lending rates lower than cooperative institutions
    (d) Work on basics of commercial banks
  5. Which of the following is not an asset held by commercial banks?
    (a) Bills of exchange
    (b) Credit balances with the Reserve Bank
    (c) Money lent at short notice
    (d) Current account deposits
  6. In order to control credit
    (a) CRR and Bank Rate should be increased
    (b) CRR should be decreased and Bank Rate should be decreased
    (c) CRR should be increased and Bank Rate should be decreased
    (d) CRR should be decreased and Bank Rates should be increased
  7. Countries with the highest inflation rates are likely to have
    (a) the highest rates of money growth
    (b) small budget deficits relative to GDP
    (c) the lowest interest rates
    (d) all of the above
  8. Bank can avail refinance against loans made to industrial units from
    (a) IDBI
    (b) DICGC
    (c) ECGC
    (d) NABARD
  9. Management by Objective (MBO) is also known as
    (a) Management by goals
    (b) Management by results
    (c) Management by planning
    (d) Management by evaluation
  10. How often should a SWOT Analysis be performed?
    (a) Only when the business starts
    (b) Only when specific issues need to be addressed
    (c) At least once per year
    (d) Every 3-5 years
  11. Which feature is connected to Management as an Art?
    (a) Universally accepted principles.
    (b) Cause and Effect Relationship
    (c) Goal – Oriented
    (d) Test of Validity and Predictability
  12. What does Milton Friedman believe to be the sole responsibility of business?
    (a) The only social responsibility of business is to its shareholders
    (b) Managers should act in ways that balance the interest of society and shareholders
    (c) The prime responsibility of organizations have is to its employees
    (d) The prime responsibility of organizations have is to its shareholders
  13.  _____________ is the process of dividing the disk into tracks and sectors.
    (a) Tracking
    (b) Formatting
    (c) Fragmenting
    (d) Defragmenting
  14. Which of the following is not a key element of an E-Commerce business model?
    (a) Value proposition
    (b) Competitive advantage
    (c) Organizational Development
    (d) Ubiquity
  15. Which of the following memories is non-volatile ?
    (a) RAM
    (b) ROM
    (c) SRAM
    (d) Cache
  16. Which IP address is reserved for loop back for local host ?
    (a) 192.168.0.0
    (b) 127.0.0.0
    (c) 127.0.0.1
    (d) No such IP address exist
  17. The basic architecture of computer was developed by
    (a) John von Neumann
    (b) Charles Babbage
    (c) Blaise Pascal
    (d) Gordon Moore
  18. For any square matrix A, AA’ is a
    (a) diagonal matrix
    (b) skew-symmetric matrix
    (c) symmetric matrix
    (d) unit matrix
  19. The point at which the maximum value of x + y subject to the constraints
    x+2y ≤ 70
    2x+y ≤ 95
    X, y ≥ 0
    (a) (30, 25)
    (b) (20, 35)
    (c) (35, 20)
    (d) (40, 15)
  20.  ∫(x-1) e^(-x) 〗dx is equal to
    (a) -xe^x + c
    (b) xe^x + c
    (c) -xe^(-x) + c
    (d) xe^(-x) + c
  21. Accounting for Government grants and disclosure of Government assistance in financial statements are the recognized as per
    (a) Indian AS2
    (b) Indian AS20
    (c) Indian AS28
    (d) Indian AS38
  22. When the royalties are less than the minimum rent ?
    (a) Royalties account is debited with the amount paid to the landlord
    (b) Royalties account is debited with the excess of minimum rent over
    (c) Royalties account is debited with the actual amount of royalties earned
    (d) Royalties account is debited with the minimum rent
  23. On the balance sheet of a company the value of assets bought through hire purchase will appear as
    (a) cost less depreciation to date
    (b) cost less depreciation to date less amount owing on hire purchase
    (c) cost less amount owing on hire purchase
    (d) cost less depreciation to date less balance in the hire vendor’s account
  24. For effective organizing an organization requires
    (a) principle of balance
    (b) span of management
    (c) organization process
    (d) planning and forecasting
  25. Which of the following is not a type of remuneration system under Time Rate System
    (a) High wage plan
    (b) Measured day work
    (c) Taylor system
    (d) Differential time rate
  26. Which of the following is not a credit rating agency ?
    (a) CRISIL
    (b) ICRA
    (c) Care
    (d) NIKKEI
  27. The semi-interquartile range is preferred to standard deviation as a measure of dispersion when
    (a) sample size is small
    (b) distribution is standardized
    (c) distribution is highly skewed
    (d) range is small
  28. The relationship between AM, GM and HM is
    (a) GM = 〖(AM)〗^2 X (HM)
    (b) GM = 〖(AM X HM)〗^2
    (c) GM = 〖(AM)〗^2 X 〖(HM)〗^2
    (d) 〖(GM)〗^2= (AM) X (HM)
  29. The lines of regression intersect at the point
    (a) (x, y)
    (b) ((x,) ̅ y ̅)
    (c) ( 0 0)
    (d)
  30. In a fancy dress competition, two judges accorded the following ranks to 8 participants as follows :
    Judge X : 8 7 6 3 2 1 5 4
    Judge Y : 7 5 4 1 3 2 6 8
    the coefficient of rank correlation is
    (a) 0.59
    (b) 0.62
    (c) 0.73
    (d) 0.97
  31. What is the median and standard deviation of a distribution are 50 and 5 respectively, if each item is increased by 4 ?
    (a) Median will increases and S.D. will increase
    (b) Both will remain same
    (c) Median will increases and S.D. will decreases
    (d) Median will go up by 4 but S.D. will remain same
  32. For reducing the labour cost per unit, which of the following factors is the most important ?
    (a) Low wage rate
    (b) Longer hours of work
    (c) Higher input-output ratio
    (d) Strict control and supervision
  33. The most suitable cost system where the products differ in type of material and work performed is
    (a) Process costing
    (b) batch costing
    (c) operating costing
    (d) job costing
  34. Cost accounting is applied to
    (a) public undertakings only
    (b) manufacturing and service concerns
    (c) large business enterprises only
    (d) small business enterprises only
  35. Which of the following is not part of the AIDA model?
    (a) Attention
    (b) Integration
    (c) Desire
    (d) Action
  36. An Ad copy which informs the target group the fact that the manufacturer is established enough to give them the right goods is
    (a) Institutional copy
    (b) Straight selling copy
    (c) educational copy
    (d) expository copy
  37.  __________ emerges when people decide to satisfy needs and wants through exchange.
    (a) Marketing
    (b) Sales
    (c) Purchase
    (d) Accounting
  38. Which of the following is incorrect about Marketing ?
    (a) It creates goodwill and positive brand image
    (b) It is the communication of the value of a product or service to customer in order to sell that product and services
    (c) It deals with identifying and meeting only the human needs
    (d) It aims at the convergence of organizational objectives and customer needs
  39. Find the most appropriate sequence of life cycle of price for a product, from the initial stage to the mature stage.
    (a) Target Price – Penetration Price – Value Based Price – Limit Price – Niche Price
    (b) Penetration Price – Limit Price – Value Based Price – Target Price – Niche Price
    (c) Penetration price – Target Price – Limit Price – Value Based Price – Nation Price
    (d) Penetration Price – Niche Price – Target Price – Limit Price – Value Based Price
  40. While a poor physical distribution system would affect all elements of a company’s marketing mix, the problems associated with a poor system
    (a) can usually be solved by investing more money in the system
    (b) are usually caused by increased distribution costs
    (c) can have a negative impact on customer service and satisfaction
    (d) are usually attributed to problems with order processing
  41. An activity and/or material that offers added value or incentive to resellers, salespersons, or consumer is
    (a) advertising
    (b) personal selling
    (c) publicity
    (d) sales promotion
  42. A process is said to be in the statistical control if it operates with _________ of variation.
    (a) chance causes
    (b) assignable causes
    (d) both chance and assignable causes
    (c) neither chance nor assignable causes
  43. If the trend line with 1995 as the origin is Y= 20.6 + 1.68X, the trend line with origin 1991 is
    (a) Y = 34.61 + 1.68X
    (b) Y = 34.61 + 6.72X
    (c) Y = 20.6 + 6.72X
    (d) Y = 13.88 + 1.68X
  44. Dishonour of cheque by a banker without any justifiable reason is called
    (a) valid dishonor of cheques
    (b) negligence dishonour of cheques
    (c) unmindful dishonour of cheques
    (d) wrong dishonour of cheques
  45. In Negotiable Instrument Act 1881, which section defines promissory note?
    (a) section 4
    (b) section 3
    (c) section 2
    (d) section 1
  46. The important feature of an anticipatory letter of credit is that
    (a) the letter of credit can be used as back to back letters of credit
    (b) the beneficiaries under the letter of credit may receive payments given at the pre-shipment stage
    (c) the beneficiary under the letter of credit may receive payments even at the post-shipment stage
    (d) the cash advance is not permitted against such letters of credit
  47. “Auditor is a Watchdog and not a Bloodhound” decision was given in case of
    (a) London and General Bank, 1895
    (b) Irish Woolen Company Limited Vs. Tyson and others, 1990
    (c) Kingston Cotton Mills Company, 1896
    (d) Foster Vs. The New Trinidad Lake Asphalte Co. Ltd.
  48. The management auditor,s work begins
    (a) after the work of a statutory auditor ends
    (b) before the work of a statutory auditor begins
    (c) varies from firm to firm
    (d) after the suggestions for target
  49. The principle of ___________ ensures that an insured does not profit by insuring with multiple insurers.
    (a) subrogation
    (b) contribution
    (c) co-insurance
    (d) indemnity
  50. Which of the following is an important reason for insurance to sell life insurance policies through agents?
    (a) The benefits of life insurance policies are simple and clear to all
    (b) People can decide which policies best for them
    (c) Agents have to earn their commissions
    (d) Many people require personalized guidance for selecting the right policy
  51. Compared to the premium for a Whole Life Plan, the premium for an Endowment plan will be ___________ for the same age.
    (a) Less than half
    (b) Less than one third
    (c) more
    (d) same
  52. Which one of the following canons of taxation was not advocated by Adam Smith?
    (a) Canon of equality
    (b) Cannon of certainty
    (c) Canon of fiscal adequacy
    (d) Canon of convenience
  53. The Indian Tax System is
    (a) proportional
    (b) progressive
    (c) regressive
    (d) degressive
  54. Which of the following are the causes of public debt of a country?
    (a) War or War preparedness including nuclear programming
    (b) To cover the budget deficits on current accounts
    (c) To undertake public welfare schemes
    (d) All of the above
  55. The principle of maximum social advantage was introduced by
    (a) Hugh Dalton
    (b) Adam Smith
    (c) Franco Modigliani
    (d) Sir Arthur Lewis
  56. Which of the following statement is true?
    (a) Doctrine of constructive notice arises from the doctrine of ultra vires
    (b) Doctrine of constructive notice arises from the doctrine of indoor management
    (c) Doctrine of indoor management arises from the doctrine of constructive notice
    (d) Doctrine of ultra vires arises from the doctrine of constructive notice
  57. ‘Proxy has a right’
    (a) to attend the general meetings
    (b) to attend and vote at meeting through Poll
    (c) to attend, speak and vote at meetings through Poll
    (d) to attend and vote at meeting by show of hands or through poll
  58. Equity shares cannot be issued for the purpose of
    (a) Cash Receipts
    (b) Purchase of assets
    (c) Redemption of debentures
    (d) Distribution of dividend
  59. In Keynes consumption theory the chief factor that determines consumption expenditure is
    (a) Personal income
    (b) Relative income
    (c) Permanent income
    (d) Disposable income
  60. LM curve represents the combination of
    (a) Price and output
    (b) Demand for money and supply of money
    (c) Income and investment
    (d) Money supply and investment
  61. According to keynes what causes changes in inducement to invest by entrepreneurs?
    (a) MPC and MEI
    (b) MEC and MPS
    (c) MEC and rate interest
    (d) MPC and rate of interest
  62. According to ___________ the holdings of a country’s treasure primarily in the form of gold constituted its wealth.
    (a) Gold theory
    (b) Ricardo theory
    (c) Mercantilism theory
    (d) Heckscher theory
  63. Balance of payments deficit can be removed through
    (a) devaluation of currency
    (b) vigorous export promotion
    (c) import substitution
    (d) All of the above
  64. Which type of economic can be termed as laissez- faire economy ?
    (a) Mixed economy
    (b) Socialist economy
    (c) Command economy
    (d) Capitalist economy
  65. Who is the current Chairperson of Niti Aayog ?
    (a) Sh. Narendra Modi
    (b) Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman
    (c) Sh. Shaktikant Das
    (d) Dr. Arvind panagariya
  66. The concept of Five-Year Plan was borrowed from which country?
    (a) The USA
    (b) England
    (c) Russia
    (d) France
  67. Any sum received by an individual as a member of HUF from the income of HUF shall be
    (a) fully exempted
    (b) fully taxable u/h ‘salary’
    (c) fully taxable u/h income other than salary
    (d) partially taxable @ 10%
  68. Year in which income is taxable is known as _________ and year in which income is earned is known as ________
    (a) PY, AY
    (b) AY, PY
    (c) AY, AY
    (d) PY, PY
  69. Highest Administrative Authority for Income Tax in India is
    (a) the Finance Minister
    (b) the Revenue Secretary
    (c) the Director of Income tax
    (d) the CBDT
  70. Which of the following is not an asset held by commercial banks?
    (a) Bills of exchange
    (b) Current account deposits
    (c) Credit balance with the Reserve Bank
    (d) Money lent at short notice
  71. Which of this Development Financial Institution was primarily set up for the development of the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise (MSME) Sector ?
    (a) NABARD
    (b) IDBI
    (c) SIDBI
    (d) IFCI
  72. Which is not one of the development steps taken for Capital Market?
    (a) Open Outcry
    (b) Book Building
    (c) Establishing SEBI
    (d) Screen Based Trading
  73. In game theory, a choice that is optimal for a firm no matter what its competitors do is referred to as
    (a) the dominant strategy
    (b) the game-winning choice
    (c) super optimal
    (d) a gonzo selection
  74. EOQ Is calculated by which of the following formulae?
    Whereas D = demand (unit/time),
    Co = ordering cost (Rs/order),
    Ch = cost of carrying inventory (Rs/unit/time)
    (a) √(2DC0/Ch)
    (b) √(DC0/Ch)
    (c) √(2DCh/Co)
    (d) √(DCh/Co)
  75. In the ABC Analysis system the B category stands for
    (a) outstanding importance in value
    (b) comparatively unimportant in value
    (c) comparatively important in value
    (d) average importance in value