M.Com Entrance Question CU CET 2020

Part – I

  1. Select the most suitable synonym of the word HECTIC
    (a) Organised
    (b) Clumsy
    (c) Frantic
    (D) Thrilling
  2. Choose the pair which exhibits the same relationship as URBAN CITY
    (a) RUSTIC :RUST
    (b) CIVILISED :CULTURED
    (c) MODERN :TRENDY
    (d) GLOBAL :WORLD
  3. Select the correct word for following sentence
    A lot of people believe that perspiration ________________ body odour.
    (a) Promotes
    (b) Results in
    (c)Causes
    (d) makes
  4. Dancer is related to Stage in the same way Minister is related to _________________.
    (a) Pulpit
    (b) Assembly
    (c) Parliament
    (d) State
  5. Identify the word which is opposite in meaning to ENSUE
    (a) Follow
    (b) Instigate
    (c) Precede
    (d) Cease
  6. Identify the part of the body with which the disease Beriberi is associated
    (a) Liver
    (b) Ear
    (c) Nerves
    (d) Joints
  7. Select correct meaning of foreign expression esprit de corps
    (a) Eternal truth
    (b) Similar feelings shares by a group
    (c) Linguistic group
    (d) emotional
  8. Identify the meaning of underlined word
    Kamaal, a graduate in marketing, has obsessed with songs since the age of 10
    (a) Captivated
    (b) Disturbed
    (c) Continually
    (d) confronted
  9. Identify the word which carriers the meaning of following sentence
    One who abstains from alcoholic drinks
    (a) Teetoteller
    (b) bootlegger
    (c) alderman
    (d) bordure
  10. Identify the word which carries the meaning of underlined idiom
    As people age, they generally become hard of hearing
    (a) Refuse to listen to others
    (b) Unable to hear well
    (c) Learn the real or true facts
    (d) Not sensitive
  11. A cistern has a leak which should empty it in 8 hours. A tap is turned on which admits 6 litre into the cistern and it is now emptied in 12 hours. How many litres does the cistern hold?
    (a) 8,860
    (b) 8,640
    (c) 8,840
    (d) 8,460
  12. Akshay, Binayak, and Raghu invest Rs.5,000 in the ratio of 3:8:14. What should be the Binayak, if the total profit is Rs. 2,500?
    (a) 400
    (b) 500
    (c) 600
    (d) 800
  13. What annual payment will discharge a debt of Rs.6,450 due in 4 years at 5% simple interest?
    (a) 1,400
    (b) 1,550
    (c) 1,500
    (d) 1,600
  14. In a certain code language MORDENT is written as LNVWIGM. How is BROTHER written in that code language?
    (a) LIVIYSG
    (b) VISGLVI
    (c) IYLGSIV
    (d) IYSGLIV
  15. The circumstance of a circle is 264 cm. What is its area?
    (a) 4,418 cm 2
    (b) 4,426 cm2
    (c) 2,100 cm 2
    (d) 5,544 cm2
  16. Two-fifth of one third of three-seventh of a number is 15. What is 40% of the number?
    (a) 72
    (b) 84
    (c) 136
    (d) 105
  17. If 15% of 40 greater than 25% of a number by 2 find out the number
    (a) 12
    (b) 16
    (c) 24
    (d) 32
  18. A student has to obtain 33% of the total marks to pass. He got 125 marks and failed by 40 marks. What are the maximum marks?
    (a) 300
    (b) 800
    (c) 500
    (d) 1,000
  19. The Kalinga Prize for the Popularization of Science is an award given by which of the following for exceptional skill in presenting scientific ideas to lay people?
    (a) Government of Odisha
    (b) WHO
    (c) Biju Patnaik Foundation
    (d) UNESCO
  20. Right to property belongs to which of the following?
    (a) Human right
    (b) Fundamental right
    (c) Legal right
    (d) Natural right
  21. Who among the following has composed this National Song of India?
    (a) Iqbal Guru
    (b) Rabindranath Tagore
    (c) Bankim Chandra Chatterji
    (d) Jai Shankar Prasad
  22. Punjab means the Land of Five Waters, referring to the rivers – Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Sutlej, and Beas. Which of these five rivers is the largest?
    (a) Beas
    (b) Jhelum
    (c) Ravi
    (d) Sutlej
  23. MICR is a technology used to verify the legitimacy or originally of paper documents, especially Cheques. In MICR, the letter ‘C’ stands for;
    (a) Character
    (b) Code
    (c) Colour
    (d) Computer
  24. Who is known as the Father of Artificial Intelligence?
    (a) Charles Babbage
    (b) Lee De Forest
    (c) John McCarthy
    (d) Bill Gates
  25. Who among the following coined the term National Technology Day to celebrate the contributions made by Indian scientists?
    (a) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
    (b) H. D. Deve Gowda
    (c) Manmohan Singh
    (d) P. V. Narasimha Rao
                                                                                  Part – II
  26. According to McClelland’s Needs Theory, which of the following is not a motivating need?
    (a) Need for Power
    (b) Need for Valence
    (c) Need for Achievement
    (d) Need for Affiliation
  27. Which of the following is not the major component of holistic marketing?
    (a) Relationship marketing
    (b) Integrated marketing
    (c) Customer perception
    (d) Socially responsible marketing
  28. ‘Management is the art of getting things done through people’. Who said this?
    (a) F. W. Taylor
    (b) Mary Parker Follett
    (c) George R. Terry
    (d) Henri Fayol
  29. Identify the activity which does not support trade?
    (a) Telecom
    (b) Warehousing
    (c) Insurance
    (d) Mining
  30. Copyrights, Patents and Trademarks are
    (a) Liquid assets
    (b) Fixed assets
    (c) Intangible assets
    (d) Investments
  31. Goodwill of a firm of A and B is valued at Rs.30,000. It is appearing in the books of Rs.12,000. C is admitted for ¼ share. What amount he is supposed to bring for goodwill?
    (a) Rs.3,000
    (b) Rs.4,500
    (c) Rs.10,000
    (d) Rs.10,500
  32. Toy manufacturing companies use ________________ costing.
    (a) Multiple costing
    (b) Process costing
    (c) Unit costing
    (d) Batch costing
  33. GST was implemented in India from
    (a) 1st January, 2017
    (b) 1st April, 2017
    (c) 1st March, 2017
    (d) 1st July, 2017
  34. Need Theory of motivation is formulated by
    (a) Varoom
    (b) McClelland
    (c) Maslow
    (d) Herzberg
  35. Law of diminishing Marginal Utility states that
    (a) Total Utility diminishes with the consumption of every additional unit
    (b) Utility always diminishes whether some thing is consumed or not
    (c) Utility first increases and after that diminishes at every point
    (d) The additional benefit which a person derives from a given increases of his stock of a thing diminishes with every increase in stock that already has.
  36. Pioneer of Human Relations is ______________
    (a) Elton Mayo
    (b) Lillian Gilberth
    (c) H. Koontz
    (d) Mary Parkett
  37. From the following modes of international business, identify the mode which involves strategic alliance
    (a) Franchising
    (b) Leasing
    (c) Turnkey Project
    (d) Joint Venture
  38. Which one of the following is not an example of Herzberg’s hygiene factors?
    (a) Advancement
    (b) International relations
    (c) Job security
    (d) Basic working conditions
  39. ‘Financial stability refers to the capacity of an undertaking to meet its financial obligation, both ______________ and __________________
    (a) Bills receivables and bills payables
    (b) Current and fixed assets
    (c) Financial position and solvency position
    (d) Short-term and long-term
  40. Which one is not normally possible in case of monopoly?
    (a) MR = AR
    (b) MR = P
    (c) MC = MR
    (d) AC = AR
  41. Which one of the following are regarded as being in the labour force?
    (a) People aged 65 who have retired early
    (b) Full-time PG students who do not have paid employment
    (c) People who have chosen to care for their families or homes rather than seek paid employment
    (d) People who have lost their jobs because of the recession and cannot at present find another job
  42. Which of the following are the three broad groups of consumer segmentation criteria?
    (a) Behavioural, psychological and profile criteria
    (b) Behavioural, income based and industry type variables
    (c) Organisational size, demographic and behavioural variables
    (d) Psychographic, sociological and price variables
  43. This form of marketing communications tool was once formally referred to as a ‘non-personal form of communication, where a clearly identifiable sponsor pays for message to be transmitted through media. This is referred to as.
    (a) Advertising
    (b) Social Media Marketing
    (c) Public Relations
    (d) Publicity
  44. These are events when groups of sellers meet collectively with the key purpose of attracting buyers.
    (a) Exhibitions
    (b) Online promotions
    (c) Mass media advertising
    (d) Press conference
  45. Consideration, an essential element in the formation of a valid contract, may be identified as.
    (a) The need for transparency in the contract
    (b) The intention of the parties to be legally bound
    (c) A balance in the terms of the agreement
    (d) The ‘bargain’ element of a contract
  46. A method of using samples to estimate population parameters is known as
    (a) Statistical interference
    (b) Statistical inference
    (c) Statistical appliance
    (d) Statistical enquiry
  47. In case, coefficient of correlation is positive, the curve representing the relation will be
    (a) Vertical
    (b) Upward sloping
    (c) Horizontal
    (d) Downward sloping
  48. The most commonly used formula to describe linear relationship is                                                                                                                             
  49. Income tax is collected on all types of income except ________________
    (a) Agricultural Income
    (b) Industrial Income
    (c) Capital Gain
    (d) Household Property
  50. Previous year means the financial year immediately preceding the ______________
    (a) Accounting Year
    (b) Assessment Year
    (c) All the above
    (d) None of the above
  51. Under FEMA, the RBI has been authorized to make ______________ to carry out the provisions of the Act
    (a) Rules
    (b) Regulations
    (c) Both rule and regulation
    (d) Notifications
  52. The I. C. A. 1956 specially requires certain other books to be kept by a company for maintaining a record of its different activities in order to safeguard the interest of the shareholders and creditor. Those books are known as _____________ books.
    (a) Financial
    (b) Statutory
    (c) Creditors
    (d) Both b) and c)
  53. To find the optimal solution, we apply _________________
    (a) LPP
    (b) VAM
    (c) MODI
    (d) Method Rim
  54. LPP is exactly used in solving what kind of resource allocation problems?
    (a) Production planning and scheduling
    (b) Transportation
    (c) Sales and advertising
    (d) All of the above
  55. Which of the following is a record of all the account balances at the year end, and is used to prepare the final accounts?
    (a) A Trial balance
    (b) A Statement of financial position
    (c) A Statement of cash flows
    (d) A Statement of profit or loss
  56. All the following are reasons behind ‘more people don’t shop online’ except
    (a) Lack of trust in online merchants
    (b) Lack of convenience
    (c) Inability to touch and feel the product
    (d) Fear of misuse of personal information
  57. __________________ is the mandatory reserves to be maintained with Reserve Bank of India.
    (a) CRR
    (b) SLR
    (c) ASR
    (d) CAR
  58. NABARD is the apex institution concerned with the policy, planning and operations in the field of ___________________ activities.
    (a) Agriculture & rural development
    (b) Commercial
    (c) Child women development
    (d) Labour welfare
  59. Which of the following is not covered under development bank.
    (a) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
    (b) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
    (c) EXIM Bank
    (d) Foreign Bank
  60. Which of the following is not a defining quality of a bond?
    (a) Dividend yield
    (b) Maturity
    (c) Face value
    (d) All of the above
  61. Which of the following is not a money market instrument?
    (a) Bonds
    (b) Treasury bills
    (c) Certificates of deposit(CDs)
    (d) Commercial paper (CP)
  62. AS – 3 is related with
    (a) Accounting Systems
    (b) Cash Flow Statement
    (c) Depreciation Accounting
    (d) Fund Flow Statement
  63. E or S means
    (a) East or South Zone
    (b) Easy and Swift
    (c) Either or Survivor
    (d) None of above
  64. Section _______________ of the Banking Regulation Act stipulates the minimum capital and reserve requirements of Banking Company
    (a) 11
    (b) 12
    (c) 13
    (d) 14
  65. Break-even sales Rs.50,000 and the P/V ratio is 20%. The fixed costs will be
    (a) Rs.10,000
    (b) Rs.20,000
    (c) Rs.50,000
    (d) Rs.35,000
  66. Notional profit Rs.1,98,000. Work completed 70% cash received 80% of work certified. Profit taken into P & L A/c is
    (a) Rs.1,06,600
    (b) Rs.1,05,600
    (c) Rs.52,800
    (d) Rs.1,98,000
  67. How can organizational structures that are characterized by democratic and inclusive styles of management be described?
    (a) Vertical
    (b) Bureaucratic
    (c) Flat
    (d) Functional
  68. Which is not a characteristic of corporate social responsibility?
    (a) Product safety
    (b) Consumer rights
    (c) Environment policies
    (d) Price-fixing
  69. Which of the following principles of Insurance tells that an insured may not be compensated by the insurance company in an amount exceeding the insured’s economic loss?
    (a) Insurance Interest
    (b) Utmost Good Faith
    (c) Principle of Contribution
    (d) Principle of Indemnity
  70. Ram is addressing his income needs by investing directly in corporate bonds. In what form, will he receive his income?
    (a) Annuity installments
    (b) Dividend payments
    (c) Interest payments
    (d) Rental payments
  71. Which of the following principles of Insurance denotes a duty of the person seeking insurance to voluntarily disclose all facts material to the risk being proposed whether requested or not?
    (a) Insurable Interest
    (b) Utmost Good Faith
    (c) Principle of Contribution
    (d) Principle of loss Minimization
  72. The way of tax liability by taking full advantages provided by the Act is ___________
    (a) Tax management
    (b) Tax avoidance
    (c) Tax planning
    (d) Tax evasion
  73. When was life insurance nationalized in India.
    (a) 1947
    (b) 1951
    (c) 1956
    (d) 1959
  74. In accordance with the provisions of Section 17 (1) of Income Tax Act, 1961, the term salary includes ______________.
    (a) Any annuity or pension
    (b) Any gratuity
    (c) Any fess, commission, perquisite or profits in lieu of or in addition to any salary or wages
    (d) All of the above
  75. Two events are mutually exclusive if
    (a) They are exclusively connected
    (b) They cannot occur together
    (c) They exclusively include mutuality
    (d) None of the above
  76. The mean of the sample means is
    (a) A biased estimator of the population
    (b) An unbiased estimator of the population mean
    (c) Neither biased nor unbiased
    (d) Both a) and b)
  77. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
    (a) An agent can only negotiate contracts on behalf of his principal if his appointment was created via a contract
    (b) If an agent is appointed to execute a deed on behalf of the principal, then the agent will usually
    (c) Generally, the law does not impose any formalities upon those who wish to create an agency relationship
    (d) If an agent is engaged to create an interest in land, he must be authorised to do so in writing
  78. Where the obligation in a contract is outstanding on the part of both parties, it is called
    (a) Void contract
    (b) Illegal agreement
    (c) Unilateral contract
    (d) Bilateral contract
  79. Which of the following are essential features of a valid simple contract?
    (a) Other and acceptance only
    (b) Offer, acceptance and consideration only
    (c) Offer, acceptance, privity, certainly and duress only
    (d) Offer, acceptance, consideration, intention to create legal relations and certainty of terms
  80. Which of the following is not part of the real business cycle explanation of business cycles?
    (a) Wage flexibility keeps output close to its potential level
    (b) Output fluctuates because of fluctuations in aggregate supply
    (c) Aggregate supply fluctuates because of fluctuations in the demand for labour
    (d) Labour demand might fall if technology increases faster than expected
  81. When is a country said to move into a recession?
    (a) If actual output falls below the potential level of output
    (b) If actual output falls below the trend level of output
    (c) if actual output falls & then rises again
    (d) If actual output falls for two consecutive quarters of a year
  82. After conducting the business analysis for developing a new product, a company must start
    (a) Manufacturing
    (b) Product positioning
    (c) Product development and testing
    (d) Test marketing
  83. A researcher takes a sample from a population list, directory, map, city directory, or any other source used to represent the population. This list possesses the information about the subjects and is called ______________
    (a) Sampling Frame
    (b) Sample
    (c) Sampling Unit
    (d) Sampling Area
  84. An organisation with a _______________ orientation assumes that customers will resist purchasing products not deemed essential. The job of marketers is to overcome this resistance through personal selling and advertising.
    (a) Production
    (b) Social
    (c) Relationship
    (d) Sales
  85. Which branch of economic theory is associated with the difficulty of resources Allocation
    (a) Econometrics
    (b) Micro-economic theory
    (c) Macro-economic theory
    (d) Classical economic theory
  86. According to the Boston Consulting Group a business which has a high growth rate but a weak market share is referred to as a
    (a) Cash Cow
    (b) Cat
    (c) Question Mark
    (d) Star
  87. Specialisation is a feature of _____________ organisational structure
    (a) Circular
    (b) Divisional
    (c) Vertical
    (d) Functional
  88. What is a virtual organisation?
    (a) An organisation that uses information and communications technologies (ICT’s) to coordinate activities without physical boundaries between different functions
    (b) An organisation that uses internet technologies to sell products to customers
    (c) An organisation that manages the supply chain using digital technologies
    (d) An organisation that coordinates the workforce via video conferencing
  89. What is the term for a process that enables an organisation to assess and demonstrate its social economic and environmental benefits and limitation?
    (a) Social plan
    (b) Social strategy
    (c) Social audit
    (d) Social account
  90. What is not an advantage of a hierarchical structure?
    (a) Clear chain of command
    (b) Quick response to change
    (c) Discipline
    (d) Easy control
  91. The liquidator a company is entitled to a remuneration of 2% on assets realized and 3% on the amount distributed to unsecure creditor. The amount assets realized Rs.1,00,000 includes cash Rs.3,000. Amount available for distributes to unsecured creditors before paying liquidator remuneration with Rs. 56,650. The liquidator remuneration will be
    (a) Rs.32,000
    (b) Rs.3,650
    (c) Rs.3,590
    (d) Rs.3,790
  92. Type of market in which securities with less than one-year maturity is trades, is classified as
    (a) Money market
    (b) Capital market
    (c) Transaction market
    (d) All of the above
  93. The lender of the last resort to the market is the _____________
    (a) Commercial banks
    (b) Indigenous banks
    (c) Money lenders
    (d) RBI
  94. TDS means
    (a) Time Deposit Scheme
    (b) Total Deposit Scheme
    (c) Tax Deducted at Source
    (d) None of the above
  95. What is meant by Aadhaar seeding?
    (a) Linking of Aadhaar with Bank account
    (b) Duplicate issuance of Aadhaar
    (c) Transfer of Aadhaar
    (d) Kept in safety locker
  96. The prime aim of SIDBI is to support ____________ by providing them the valuable factor of production.
    (a) Big Industrialists
    (b) MSMEs
    (c) Needy Women
    (d) None of the above
  97. Which of the following is an advantage of e-books?
    (a) Reduced transaction costs for the user
    (b) Requirement of expensive devices to use
    (c) Impact on health
    (d) Copyright management
  98. Auction sales like eBay tend to use ______________ Pricing.
    (a) Dynamic
    (b) Fixed
    (c) Skimming
    (d) Utilisation
  99. Which of the following payments is revenue expenditure?
    (a) Investment put into the business by the owner
    (b) Purchase of a motor van
    (c) Cost of servicing the motor van
    (d) Money taken out by the owner of the business
  100. The main object of the audit is to ensure that the _______________ of the relevant financial year truly and fairly reflect the state of affairs of the company.
    (a) Statement of accounts
    (b) Trial Balance
    (c) Revenue Statement
    (d) None of these