Karnataka SET 2014 Commerce – III

  1. A financial asset that represents a claim to another financial asset is called
    (a) Hedged asset
    (b) Sub-ordinated asset
    (c) Dual security
    (d) Derivative asset
  2. Which of the following discount rates should be used when computing the net advantage to leasing ?
    (a) Lessee’s after-tax discount rate
    (b) Lessee’s pre-tax discount rate
    (c) Lessor’s pre-tax discount rate
    (d) Lessor’s after-tax discount rate
  3. International bonds issued in multiple countries but denominated in a single currency are called
    (a) ADRs
    (b) Foreign bonds
    (c) Euro bonds
    (d) Gilt bonds
  4. A stock has produced annual returns of 11%, 15%, – 6% and 4% over the past 4 years respectively. What is the 68% probability range of returns ?
    (a) – 2.8 to 14.8 %
    (b) – 12.4 to 24.4 %
    (c) – 9.9 to 21.9 %
    (d) – 3.2 to 15.2 %
  5. Portfolio diversification reduces which type of risk ?
    (a) Market risk
    (b) Asset specific risk
    (c) Total risk
    (d) Systematic risk
  6. Advantages of investing in mutual funds for individual investors is/are :
    I) Diversification of risk
    II) Professional knowledge of fund managers in managing funds
    III) High returns
    IV) Steady returns
    V) Assured returns
    Codes :
    (a) I, II and III
    (b) I, II and IV
    (c) I, II and V
    (d) II, IV and V
  7. Which of the following is not regulated by SEBI ?
    (a) FII
    (b) FDI
    (c) Mutual funds
    (d) Depositories
  8. The first computerised online stock exchange in India is
    (a) NSE
    (b) BSE
    (c) MCX
    (d) NCDX
  9. A subtotal used in evaluating the performance of a responsibility centre manager as distinct from the performance of the centre is
    I) Contribution margin less controllable fixed costs
    II) Contribution margin plus fixed costs deferred into inventory
    III) Sales less committed costs
    Codes :
    (a) I above only
    (b) I and II both
    (c) III above only
    (d) II above only
  10. Which of the following statements is correct ?
    (a) Marking to market is the term that applies to the daily resettlement feature found in all forward contracts
    (b) A future contract is exactly the same as a forward contract
    (c) Using a contract on a related, but not identical, asset as a means of hedging is called cross rating
    (d) The gain or losses on a futures contract are realised on daily basis
  11. Venture capital funds are usually deployed in
    I) Low risk companies
    II) Listed IT companies
    III) Unlisted IT companies
    IV) Start-up ventures by new generation entrepreneurs
    Codes :
    (a) I, II
    (b) III, IV
    (c) I, III
    (d) II only
  12. Which one of the following statements is true ?
    (a) The value of a merger to the acquiring firm increases as the merger premium increases
    (b) Stock acquisitions tend to be less complicated than cash acquisitions
    (c) If the managers of the acquiring firm do not wish to lose any of their managerial control, they should acquire other firms with cash, rather than stock
    (d) An acquisition completed by exchanging shares of stock is generally a taxable transaction
  13. Match List I with List II :
    List – I  List – II
    a) Commodity asset  i) NAV
    b) Stock asset ii) Debtors and Bills receivables
    c) Factoring  iii) Financial derivative
    d) Mutual funds i v) Commodity derivative

    Codes :
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (a) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
    (b) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
    (c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
    (d) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

  14. Match List I with List II :
    List – I List – II
    a) Market risk  i) Marketability of security
    b) Interest risk  ii) Price volatility
    c) Business risk iii) Bank rate
    d) Liquidity risk iv) Recession

    Codes :
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (a) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
    (b) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
    (c) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
    (d) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

  15. Match List I with List II :
    List – I  List – II
    a) Risk-return  i) Risk free rate trade-off of return
    b) Risk aversion is ii) Risk premium measured by
    c) Relationship iii) Minimization of between spot risk and forward exchange rate
    d) HRA  iv) Interest rate parity theory
    v) Human information processing

    Codes :
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (a) (i) (iii) (v) (iv)
    (b) (ii) (i) (v) (iii)
    (c) (iv) (v) (ii) (i)
    (d) (iii) (i) (iv) (v)

  16. A brand’s position and its continuing recognition in the market is called
    (a) Market acceptance
    (b) Market coverage
    (c) Market awareness
    (d) Market strategy
  17. Marketing starts and ends with
    (a) Planning and profit
    (b) Sales promotion and profit
    (c) Consumer
    (d) Selling
  18. Groups of ordinary consumers setup and organised to offer views on products and
    services they have purchased are called
    (a) Consumer groups
    (b) Consumer associations
    (c) Consumer panels
    (d) Advisors
  19. Match the following :
    List – A  List – B
    a) Market profile  i) A wide range of marketing activities conducted at the point of sale
    b) Market potential ii) An estimated number of customers a company can reach with a marketing campaign
    c) Market reach  iii) An estimated share in a particular market
    d) Merchandising  iv) Characteristics of market

    Codes :
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (a) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
    (b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
    (c) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
    (d) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

  20. The extent to which a product or service has succeeded in gaining its share of
    sales in a market is called
    (a) Market niche
    (b) Market positioning
    (c) Market potential
    (d) Market penetration
  21. The display cabins in super markets are often called
    (a) Window dressing
    (b) Gondolas
    (c) Trays
    (d) Baskets
  22. Statements :
    I) Packing two products together and selling at a price less than the price of two individual items is called banded pack.
    II) Competitive marketing and related activities based on any factor except price is called priceless competition.
    Codes :
    (a) Both are correct
    (b) Both are incorrect
    (c) I is correct, II is incorrect
    (d) II is correct, I is incorrect
  23. The task environment of marketing includes
    a) Employees
    b) Suppliers
    c) Distributors
    d) Target customers
    Codes :
    (a) (a), (b) and (c)
    (b) (b), (c) and (d)
    (c) (c), (d) and (a)
    (d) (d), (a) and (b)
  24. Match the following :
    List – A List – B
    a) Routine  i) Products products having low value, low cost and moderate risk
    b) Leverage  ii) Products products having high value, high cost and high risk
    c) Strategic  iii) Products products having high cost, high value and little risk
    d) Bottleneck  iv) Products products having low value, low cost and little risk

    Codes :
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    (b) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
    (c) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
    (d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

  25. Statements :
    I) Most of the big companies out source their marketing research activities.
    II) Unprofitable customers who defect to a competitor should be encouraged to do so.
    Codes :
    (a) Both are correct
    (b) Both are incorrect
    (c) I is correct, II is incorrect
    (d) II is correct, I is incorrect
  26. Demographic segmentation includes
    a) Age and life cycle
    b) Income and social class
    c) Generation and gender
    d) Geography and income
    Codes :
    (a) (a), (b) and (c) only
    (b) (a) and (b) only
    (c) (c) and (b) only
    (d) (b), (c) and (d) only
  27. Statements :
    I) Product line refers to a group of products within a product class that are closely related.
    II) The width of a product mix refers to how many different product lines the company carries.
    Codes :
    (a) Both are correct
    (b) Both are incorrect
    (c) I is correct, II is incorrect
    (d) II is correct, I is incorrect
  28. Match the following :
    List – A List – B
    a) Value pricing  i) Cost plus profit pricing
    b) Going rate ii) Pricing for a fixed pricing rate of profit
    c) Mark up  iii) Pricing dependent pricing on competitors’ pricing
    d) Target return  iv) Charging low price pricing for a high quality offering

    Codes :
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (a) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
    (b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
    (c) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
    (d) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

  29. The buying behaviour is influenced to a great extent by
    a) Culture
    b) Peer group
    c) Family tree
    d) Income
    Codes :
    (a) (a) and (b)
    (b) (a), (b) and (d)
    (c) (b), (c) and (d)
    (d) (a), (b) and (c)
  30. The task of any business is to deliver _________ at a profit.
    (a) Customer needs
    (b) Products
    (c) Customer value
    (d) Products and services
  31. Human resource plans of organizations should be flexible as far as possible
    (a) To accommodate changes in senior management teams
    (b) To adapt to changing skills and qualifications
    (c) To accommodate the rapidly changing environments in which most organisations operate
    (d) To ensure diverse work force at all levels
  32. Critical factor which ensures success of an organisation is
    (a) Recruiting only talented people
    (b) Provision of incentives liberally to motivate employees
    (c) Creating cultures and systems in which staff can use their talents
    (d) Creating conducive environment to ensure high performance from everyone
  33. Statements :
    I) Balanced score card is a measurement framework that helps managers translate strategic goals
    into operational objectives.
    II) A group of individual jobs of an organisation is called job family.
    Codes :
    (a) I is correct II is incorrect
    (b) II is correct I is incorrect
    (c) Both are correct
    (d) Both are incorrect
  34. Match the following :
    List – A  List – B
    a) Structured  i) Getting responses interview without influencing applicants remarks
    b) Situational  ii) Seeking response interview to a actual work incident happened in past
    c) Behavioural  iii) Seeking response Description to a given interview hypothetical incident
    d) Non-directive  iv) Seeking interview responses for pre determined questions

    Codes :
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (a) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
    (b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
    (c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
    (d) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

  35. Skill deficit exists in the labour market
    a) when the skills available do not match the skill required
    b) when the supply of skills is keeping pace with the jobs available
    c) when the skills supplied match those demanded
    d) when the supply of skills fall short of jobs created
    Codes :
    (a) (a), (b) and (c) only
    (b) (a) and (b) only
    (c) (a) and (d) only
    (d) (b) and (c) only
  36. The most common activities performed by human resources department which are often outsourced are
    (a) Recruitment and selection
    (b) Human resource planning
    (c) Performance evaluation
    (d) Occupational health
  37. Portfolio working is working in which
    (a) An individual work at home for a single employer
    (b) A person demonstrates his work in a portfolio
    (c) A person is not attached to a single employer and contract of employment
    (d) A person chooses multiple career
  38. Statements :
    I) An employee leaving the organisation as a result of violation of rules is an example of forced
    retirement.
    II) Management giving an option for an employee to retire due to his illness or disability is an example of voluntary retirement.
    Codes :
    (a) I is correct, II is incorrect
    (b) II is correct, I is incorrect
    (c) Both are correct
    (d) Both are incorrect
  39. Match the following :
    List – A  List – B
    a) Graphic rating i) Ranking scale method employees from best to worst
    b) Ranking  ii) Measuring method performance against absolute standard
    c) Paired  iii) Measuring comparison performance method against list of statement
    d) Check list iv) Measuring method performance with other employees in the group

    Codes :
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (a) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
    (b) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
    (c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
    (d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

  40. Factors that may create negative impression for candidates is/are
    a) Clear and informative websites
    b) Long and complicated application blanks
    c) Poor organisational image in the market
    d) Reputed people on the board of directors
    Codes :
    (a) (a), (b) and (c)
    (b) (a) and (d)
    (c) (b) and (c)
    (d) (b) and (d)
  41. Human resource planning is not simply about meeting the demand for labour but also involves
    (a) Redeploying staff
    (b) Directing line managers
    (c) Enforcing rules, regulations and policies
    (d) Costs associated with employing any given number of people
  42. Employers are interested in employee engagement because
    (a) To make employees work harder for less payment
    (b) To make substantial profit
    (c) To encourage employees to trust their managers
    (d) Engaged employees are more motivated and prepared to give their best to the firm
  43. The expansion of HCA is
    (a) Human Capital Allowance
    (b) Human Capital Advantage
    (c) Human Capital Appraisal
    (d) Human Capital Assessment
  44. Tight labour market refers to a situation wherein
    a) There is high labour turnover
    b) Firms can hire the employees without any difficulty
    c) Firms offer additional incentives and benefits
    d) Recruitment has to be more creative
    Codes :
    (a) (a), (b) and (c)
    (b) (a), (c) and (d)
    (c) (b), (c) and (d)
    (d) (a), (b) and (d)
  45. Statements :
    I) Job specification is a statement of the needed knowledge skills and abilities of the person who is to perform the job.
    II) Too great reliance on internal recruitment can result in high labour turnover.
    Codes :
    (a) Both are correct
    (b) II is correct, I is incorrect
    (c) I is correct, II is incorrect
    (d) Both are incorrect
  46. The purchasing power parity theory was put forward by
    (a) Dr. Paul Einzig
    (b) Gustav Cassel
    (c) S. S. Tarapore
    (d) Giddy
  47. According to Article I of the Charter of the SAARC, following is not the objective of the association
    (a) To promote the welfare of the people of South Asia and to improve their quality of life
    (b) To strengthen co-operation with other developing countries
    (c) To promote and strengthen collective self-reliance among the countries of South Asia
    (d) Inclusion of all types of products – raw, semi-processed and processed
  48. Arrange the following stages of globalisation in correct sequence.
    i) Multinational company
    ii) Domestic company
    iii) Transnational company
    iv) International company
    Codes :
    (a) (ii), (i), (iii) and (iv)
    (b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
    (c) (ii), (iv), (i) and (iii)
    (d) (iv), (ii), (iii) and (i)
  49. Assertion (i) : MNCs help to increase the investment level and thereby the income and employment in host country.
    Reason (ii) : MNCs work to equalise the cost of factors of production around the world.
    Codes :
    (a) Both are correct
    (b) Both are incorrect
    (c) (i) is correct, (ii) is incorrect
    (d) (i) is incorrect, (ii) is correct
  50. Match the following :
    List – I List – II
    (Organisation)  (Place where situated)
    i) UNCTAD 1) New York
    ii) UN Department of Economics and Social Affairs  2) Switzerland
    iii) UN Industrial Development Organisation  3) Geneva
    iv) UN International Trade Centre 4) Washington

    Codes :
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    (a) 2 4 1 3
    (b) 3 1 4 2
    (c) 4 2 1 3
    (d) 1 3 2 4

  51. Which of the following basic methods of payments is the least secure in terms of security to the exporter ?
    (a) Letter of credit
    (b) Open account
    (c) Draft or Bill of exchange
    (d) Cash in advance
  52. Holding ________ gives the bearer the option to acquire foreign exchange from the monetary authorities of another member of the IMF.
    (a) Dollar
    (b) Gold
    (c) Silver
    (d) SDR
  53. Assertion (i) : SEZ companies can import duty-free all their requirements of imports.
    Reason (ii) : Supplies to SEZ units are considered as deemed exports and suppliers are eligible for advance license for import of immediate inputs.
    Codes :
    (a) (i) and (ii) are true
    (b) (i) and (ii) are false
    (c) (i) is true and (ii) is false
    (d) (i) is false and (ii) is true
  54. Arrange the following strategic decisions of the international business in sequence
    i) Entry and operating decision
    ii) Market selection decision
    iii) Marketing mix decision
    iv) Doing overseas business decision
    Codes :
    (a) (iv), (ii), (i) and (iii)
    (b) (i), (iii), (ii) and (iv)
    (c) (iii), (iv), (i) and (ii)
    (d) (ii), (i), (iii) and (iv)
  55. Match the following :
    List – I List – II
    (Institutions)  (Year of establishment)
    a) EXIM Bank  1) 1982
    b) IMF 2) 1995
    c) IDA 3) 1960
    d) IFC  4) 1956

    Codes :
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (a) 2 4 3 1
    (b) 3 1 4 2
    (c) 1 2 3 4
    (d) 4 3 1 2

  56. The three nations which filed a complaint to the WTO Dispute Settlement Body against the ban on Shrimp imports, imposed by USA are
    (a) India, Thailand and Pakistan
    (b) Malaysia, Thailand and Pakistan
    (c) India, China and Brazil
    (d) India, Nepal and Bhuthan
  57. Which of the following factors has not contributed to the cross border portfolio investment ?
    (a) Liberalisation of international portfolio investments, particularly by emerging banks
    (b) Attractive returns on investments in the emerging markets
    (c) The realisation by companies of the benefits of global sourcing of finance
    (d) Many developing countries do not have the financial and knowledge resources to effectively participate
  58. Arrange the following institutions in order of their inception
    i) SAFTA
    ii) WTO
    iii) ADB
    iv) IBRD
    Codes :
    (a) (ii), (i), (iv) and (iii)
    (b) (iv), (iii), (ii) and (i)
    (c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
    (d) (iii), (iv), (i) and (ii)
  59. Assertion (i) : Removal of quantitative restrictions does not mean duty-free imports.
    Reason (ii) : Removal of quantitative restrictions is an item that can be imported without import licence or quotas.
    Codes :
    (a) (i) and (ii) are false
    (b) (i) and (ii) are true
    (c) (i) is false and (ii) is true
    (d) (i) is true and (ii) is false
  60. Match the following :
    List – I  List – II
    (Country)  (Currency)
    a) Costa Rica  1) Pound
    b) Cyprus 2) Colon
    c) Ethiopia 3) Peseta
    d) Spain 4) Birr

    Codes :
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (a) 3 1 2 4
    (b) 2 1 4 3
    (c) 3 2 1 4
    (d) 2 1 4 3

  61. All assessees are required to follow uniform previous year for all sources of income w.e.f. the assessment year
    (a) 1989-90
    (b) 1999-2000
    (c) 2009-2010
    (d) 2013-2014
  62. Block of assets is defined under Section
    (a) 2 (11)
    (b) 43 (1)
    (c) 43 (6)
    (d) 32
  63. Assertion (a) : Mr. A transfers his house property to his minor child and therefore, he is not liable to pay income-tax on the income from the house property.
    Reason (R) : The child, being an owner, is liable to pay income-tax on house property income.
    Codes :
    (a) Both (a) and (R) are correct
    (b) (a) is correct and (R) is incorrect
    (c) (a) is incorrect and (R) is correct
    (d) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect
  64. Match the following :
    List – A List – B
    a) Assessment year  i) Section 2(7)
    b) Previous year  ii) Section 2(31)
    c) Assessee  iii) Section 2(9)
    d) Person iv) Section 3

    Codes :
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (a) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
    (b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
    (c) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
    (d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

  65. Income from business controlled from outside India is not taxable in India when an assessee is
    i) Resident and ordinarily resident
    ii) Resident but not ordinarily resident
    iii) Non-resident in India
    Codes :
    (a) (i) and (ii)
    (b) (ii) and (iii)
    (c) (i) and (iii)
    (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
  66. Intangible assets purchased after March 31, 1998, are grouped, for claiming depreciation at 25%, under the block of assets numbered
    (a) Block 1
    (b) Block 5
    (c) Block 7
    (d) Block 13
  67. Given the income from salary Rs. 1,00,000, business profits before depreciation Rs. 16,000 current depreciation Rs. 1,34,000 and the income from other sources Rs. 10,000, the taxable income for the A. Y. 2014-15 will be
    (a) Rs. 0
    (b) Rs. 10,000
    (c) Rs. 1,00,000
    (d) Rs. 1,10,000
  68. Assertion (a) : Interest paid by one unit of an assessee to another unit is not allowed for deduction.
    Reasoning (R) : Interest paid or payable on borrowed capital used in business is deductible.
    Codes :
    (a) Both (a) and (R) are correct
    (b) (a) is correct and (R) is incorrect
    (c) (a) is incorrect and (R) is correct
    (d) Both (a) and (R) are incorrect
  69. Match the following :
    List – A  List – B
    a) Depreciation (i) Sec. 36(1) (iiia)
    b) Interest on borrowed capital (ii) Sec. 32
    c) Employer’s contribution to R.P.F.  (iii) Sec. 36(1) (iii)
    d) Discount on zero-coupon bonds (iv) Sec. 36(1) (iv)

    Codes :
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    (b) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
    (c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
    (d) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

  70. Distribution of capital assets by a company at the time of liquidation is not treated as transfer provided :
    i) assets are distributed in kind
    ii) assets are distributed to the shareholders
    iii) assets are distributed on liquidation
    Codes :
    (a) (i) only
    (b) (i) and (ii)
    (c) (ii) and (iii)
    (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
  71. The maximum deduction allowed in respect of donation to Prime Mnister’s Drought Relief Fund and Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund (as a % of netqualifying amount) is
    (a) 100% and 100% respectively
    (b) 50% and 50% respectively
    (c) 50% and 100% respectively
    (d) 100% and 50% respectively
  72. The book profit of a partnership (minus) Rs. 1,00,000. The maximum amount deductible in respect of remuneration to partners under Section 40(b) w.e.f. the
    A. Y. 2010-11 is
    (a) Rs. 1,00,000
    (b) Rs. Nil
    (c) Rs. 1,50,000
    (d) Actual salary paid in excess of Rs. 1,50,000
  73. Match the following :
    List – A  List – B
    a) Deduction u/s 80D i) All assesses
    b) Deduction u/s 80 E ii) Co-operative societies
    c) Deduction u/s 80 P iii) Individual and HUFs
    d) Deduction u/s 80 GGA  iv) Individuals only

    Codes :
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
    (b) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
    (c) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
    (d) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

  74. Assertion (a) : Mr. X was born in India on 1-1-1954 and therefore, he is a resident senior citizen.
    Reasoning (R) : Mr. X, referred to above, earned total income of Rs. 3,00,000 and therefore, is not liable to pay income-tax.
    Codes :
    (a) Both (a) and (R) are correct
    (b) (a) is correct and (R) is incorrect
    (c) (a) is incorrect and (R) is correct
    (d) Both (a) and (R) are incorrect
  75. Which of the following loss (or losses) cannot be carried forward if the return of loss is not submitted in time ?
    i) Business loss (speculation or otherwise)
    ii) Capital loss
    iii) Loss from the activity of owning and maintaining race horses
    Codes :
    (a) (i) and (ii)
    (b) (i) and (iii)
    (c) (ii) and (iii)
    (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

    Answer Key

    1 (d) 2 (a) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (b) 6 (b) 7 (b) 8 (a) 9 (a) 10 (d) 11 (b) 12 (c) 13 (c) 14 (a) 15 (d) 16 (c) 17 (c) 18 (c) 19 (b) 20 (d) 21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (b) 24 (d) 25 (d) 26 (a) 27 (a) 28 (c) 29 (b) 30 (c) 31 (c) 32 (d) 33 (a) 34 (b) 35 (c) 36 (d) 37 (c) 38 (a) 39 (a) 40 (c) 41 (d) 42 (d) 43 (b) 44 (b) 45 (c) 46 (b) 47 (d) 48 (c) 49 (a) 50 (b) 51 (b) 52 (d) 53 (a) 54 (a) 55 (c) 56 (b) 57 (d) 58 (b) 59 (b) 60 (b&d) 61 (a) 62 (a) 63 (d) 64 (c) 65 (c) 66 (d) 67 (c) 68 (a) 69 (b) 70 (d) 71 (c) 72 (c) 73 (a) 74 (a) 75 (d)