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- Which one of the following statements is not true ?
(a) All Accounting Standards in India are framed by ICAI from time to time
(b) All Accounting Standards are mandatory
(c) Responsibility Accounting presumes Revenue and Cost Centers are identifiable
(d) Social Accounting is not mandatory in India - As per current regulations, each mutual fund can invest overseas upto a maximum amount of
(a) Rs.300 crore
(b) US $ 300 mn.
(c) US $ 300 bn.
(d) Rs. 3,000 crore - One of these is not a commodity exchange established in India
(a) MCX
(b) NCDEX
(c) NMCE
(d) BANKEX - Securities Lending and Borrowing (SLB) is the mechanism introduced by SEBI
(a) For providing settlement of stocks sold short
(b) For raising loans against stocks
(c) For settlement of short selling of securities
(d) For settlement of default transactions - The settlement period for short selling is
(a) T + 3
(b) T + 2
(c) T + 1
(d) T + 5 - Government Securities Act has not provided one of the following facility
(a) Permits pledging of securities
(b) Govt. securities can be split into different securities
(c) Nomination facility can be provided to investors
(d) Payment will be made to the bearer of the securities - If the yield on long dated Govt. Securities falls, then the yield curve will become
(a) Steeper
(b) Flatter
(c) Shift downward
(d) Shift upward - 11% Govt. of India Security is quoted at Rs. 110. If the interest rates go down by 1% the market price of the security will be
(a) Rs. 110
(b) Rs. 109
(c) Rs. 122.2
(d) Rs. 111.2 - Which one of the following statements is false ?
(a) Convertible debentures carry an element of equity shares
(b) Favourable monsoon brightens the prospects for stock market
(c) Money market mutual funds do not invest in equity shares
(d) Mutual fund mobilisation has bearish influence on the stock market - Which one of the following statements is true ?
(a) Steeper yield curve means long term interest rates are much higher than short term interest rates
(b) Falling interest rates cause NAVs of debt mutual fund to go down
(c) Mutual funds can offer guaranteed returns
(d) A mutual fund scheme, with an entry load will have its sale price higher than its NAV - A Company with a capital of Rs. 50 crores (Face value of Rs. 10/- per share) makes a gross profit of Rs. 70 crores and PAT of Rs. 25 crores. If the market price of its equity share is Rs. 50. The PE ratio will be
(a) 50
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) 20 - Financial Risk is defined as
(a) Risk arising due to capital structure dynamics
(b) Uncertainities in cash flow
(c) Business losses
(d) Risk due to market price fluctuations - A Company with equity capital of Rs. 15 crores makes PBIT of Rs. 15 crores and PAT of Rs. 10 crores. The face value of the share is Rs. 5 and PE ratio is 10. The market price will be
(a) Rs. 50
(b) Rs. 66
(c) Rs. 33
(d) Rs. 100 - Find the odd-man-out in investment risk.
(a) Interest Rate Risk
(b) Business Risk
(c) Market Risk
(d) Inflation - Which one of the expressions indicate market risk of individual security ?
(a) i
(b) p
(c) Ri
(d) Rp - A system used to determine the attractiveness and probability of success of a product is called
(a) Demand forecasting
(b) Opportunity analysis
(c) Environmental analysis
(d) Market opportunity analysis - Purchase of goods, services and information E-Commerce from various online suppliers is
(a) E-Commerce
(b) E-Purchasing
(c) E-Marketing
(d) Tele-marketing - The process of reintroducing earlier product forms that can be well adapted to a new market environment is called
(a) Re-invention
(b) New invention
(c) Backward invention
(d) Reintroduction - The process of selling all products under a particular brand name is called
(a) Brand line
(b) Brand extension
(c) Brand mix
(d) Brand portfolio - Products that are necessary to the use of other products such as razor blades or film are called
(a) Main products
(b) Captive products
(c) Necessary products
(d) Essential products - Match the following:
List-I List-II (a)Geographic (i) Age (b)Demographic (ii) Income level (c)Socio-Economic (iii) Region (d)Psychographic (iv) Compulsiveness Code :
(a) (c) (d)
(a) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(b) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) - Match the following :
List-I List-II (a)Publicity (i) Print ads (b)Personal selling (ii) Couponing (c)Sales promotion (iii) Telemarketing (d)Advertising (iv) Print media Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) - Statement A : Relatively permanent and homogenous division in a society into which individuals or families showing similar values, life-styles, interests and behaviour can be categorised.
Statement B : This is social class.
Code :
(a) Statement A is true but Statement B is not true
(b) Statement A is not true but Statement B is true
(c) Both the statements do not match each other
(d) Both the statements A and B are true - The set of all brands and brand lines a particular firm offers for sale to buyers in a particular category is known as
(a) Brand line
(b) Brand mix
(c) Brand group
(d) Brand portfolio - The extraction of useful information about individuals, trends and segments from the mass of data is known as
(a) Data mining
(b) Database
(c) Data retrieval
(d) Data warehouse - A set of procedures and sources from which managers obtain every day information about developments in the marketing environment is called
(a) Marketing information system
(b) Marketing intelligence system
(c) Market research
(d) Marketing reports - When the manufacturer uses advertising and promotion to persuade customers to buy the product, the strategy is known as
(a) Pull strategy
(b) Push strategy
(c) Sales strategy
(d) Marketing strategy - Groups of people who influence a person’s attitudes, values and behaviour is called
(a) Friends group
(b) Peer group
(c) Neighbours
(d) Reference groups - When a firm increases the depth within a particular line and/or the number of lines a firm offers to customers is called
(a) Product expansion
(b) Product extension
(c) Product-mix expansion
(d) Line extension - Selling the product through every available outlet in a market where a consumer might reasonably look for it is called
(a) Comprehensive distribution
(b) Intensive distribution
(c) Exclusive distribution
(d) Selective distribution - Human factor can be described as
(a) Active agent
(b) Passive agent
(c) Inanimate object
(d) Inorganic object - Job description and job specification are the byproducts of
(a) Job enlargement
(b) Job enrichment
(c) Job analysis
(d) Job design - A process that ensures right number and right kind of people are available at right times and right places in an organization
(a) Recruitment process
(b) Selection process
(c) Induction
(d) Manpower planning - Educational qualifications are prescribed by law for the following position
(a) HR Manager
(b) Labour Welfare Officer
(c) Marketing Officer
(d) All the above - The process of familiarising the new employee with company rules, regulations and other job related information
(a) Placement
(b) Induction
(c) Role clarity
(d) Job classification - Job description is a statement that contains elements like
(a) Job title, location and duties
(b) Machines, tools and equipment
(c) Materials, working conditions and hazards
(d) All the above - In performance appraisal, when rater’s assessment is influenced by previously held beliefs, this error is called
(a) Spill over effect
(b) Perceptual set
(c) Halo effect
(d) Leniency error - The tendency to judge all aspects of an employee’s performance on the basis of a single attribute is
(a) Halo effect
(b) Leniency error
(c) Like me effect
(d) Rater effect - A creative method of training in which participants are given an opportunity to generate ideas openly, without fear of judgement
(a) Simulation
(b) Artificial intelligence
(c) Brain storming
(d) Inbasket - If money wages are fixed and constant, which of the following situation would prevail ?
(a) Real wage may also be constant
(b) Real wage may fall
(c) Real wage may rise
(d) None of the above - Give the correct sequence of the following.
(i)Living wage
(ii)Minimum wage
(iii)Fair wage
(iv)Subsistence wage
(a) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(b) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(c) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(d) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) - Which is not an intra-mural welfare facility ?
(a) Latrines and urinals
(b) Washing facilities
(c) Housing facility
(d) Creche facility - The scope of industrial relations does not include
(a) Employer and employee relations
(b) Employer and trade union relations
(c) Employer and customer relations
(d) Employer and Government relations - Welfare is considered as:
(a) Social concept
(b) Relative concept
(c) Total concept
(d) All the above - Arrange the following in order
(i)Promotion
(ii)Performance appraisal
(iii)Recruitment
(iv)Training
(a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(b) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) - Match the following :
Part – A Part – B (a)Current Account 1) Unilateral transfers (b)Capital Account 2) Basic Balance (c)Official Reserve 3) SDRs Account (d)Net Liquidity term capital 4) Liquid short Balance Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 4 3 2 1 - Which conference gives birth to the “International Monetary Fund” ?
(a) Bretownwoods
(b) Congress
(c) LIBOR
(d) TIDA - Statement ‘A’ : SDRs are right to drawn on the International Monetary Fund and are sometimes called ‘Paper Gold’.
Statement ‘B’ : Miscellaneous items consists of the allocation of Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and statistical discrepancy.
(a) Statement ‘A’ is true
(b) Statement ‘B’ is true
(c) Statement ‘A’ and ‘B’ are true
(d) Statement ‘A’ and ‘B’ are not true - How many members are there in IMF (as on July 2011) ?
(a) 187
(b) 176
(c) 180
(d) 172 - The International Finance Corporation came into force on
(a) July 1956
(b) August 1956
(c) January 1956
(d) December 1956 - 8th Conference of GATT has been held at
(a) Uruguve Round
(b) Hempasayer
(c) New Delhi
(d) Chennai - For political co-operation which body came into existence ?
(a) World bank
(b) Reserve bank of India
(c) United nations organisation
(d) International Monetary Fund - The SDRs can be used by the participating countries.
(a) Conditionally
(b) Un-conditionally
(c) Freely
(d) Warranties - Match the following:
Part – A(Foreign Exchange Part – B (Year) Reserve, in gold, Rs., crore) (a) 40124 1) 2007-08 (b) 48793 2) 2008-09 (c) 81188 3) 2009-10 (d) 102572 4) 2010-11 Code : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 3 1 2 - Which of the following is not example of Foreign Exchange Rate ?
(a) US $ = 1 : Rs. 45
(b) Pound = 1 : Rs. = 78
(c) Iraqee Dinar = 1 : Rs. 30
(d) None of the above - Who has demonstrated, how prosperity of one country brings prosperity to other countries participating in International Trade ?
(a) J. M. Keynes
(b) Prof. Bertil Ohlin
(c) Prof. Horst Kohaler
(d) Prof. T. M. Hurller - How many percent of the subscribed capital of World Bank has been called and paid by member countries ?
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 15%
(d) 35% - 4) 2010-11The Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) was created in
(a) 1988
(b) 1989
(c) 1990
(d) 1991 - Match the following :
Part – A(Country) Part – B (Currency) (a)Algeria 1) Dinar (b)Angola 2) Kwanza (c)Egypt 3) Pound (d)Ethiopia 4) Birr (e)Ghana 5) Cedi Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(a) 1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
(b) 1) 4) 5) 3 2)
(c) 5) 4) 3) 2) 1)
(d) 2) 4) 5) 3) 1) - The organisation for European Economic Co- operation formed in
(a) 1940
(b) 1948
(c) 1945
(d) 1946 - The objective of taxation is
(a) To achieve socio-economic development
(b) To improve the financial position of the country
(c) To prevent concentration of wealth in the hand of few people
(d) All of the above - Which of the following is an indirect tax ?
(a) Wealth tax
(b) Income tax
(c) Gift tax
(d) Sales tax - Maximum number of members in CBDT is
(a) 4
(b) 21
(c) 5
(d) 26 - Income Tax Act came into force on
(a) 1-4-1962
(b) 1-7-1962
(c) 1-5-1962
(d) 1-9-1962 - Surcharge means
(a) Tax on total income
(b) Tax on salary income
(c) Tax on tax
(d) None of the above - Municipal tax paid by _______ is not allowed.
(a) Tenant
(b) Owner
(c) Assessee
(d) None - Section 80G deals with
(a) Pension
(b) Donations
(c) Gratuity
(d) None - If assessee is physically handicapped, deduction u/s is allowed.
(a) 80a
(b) 80G
(c) 80u
(d) None - Section 80D deals with
(a) Medical expenses
(b) Education expenses
(c) Pension
(d) None - Education cess is leviable at rate.
(a) 3%
(b) 2%
(c) 2.5%
(d) 3.5% - Residential status of an individual is to be determined for
(a) Previous year
(b) Assessment year
(c) Accounting year
(d) All of the above - A senior citizen is one of and above.
(a) 50 years
(b) 55 years
(c) 60 years
(d) None of the above - The exemption limit of income for tax purpose for the a.y. 2013-14 in case of an individual other than senior citizen is
(a) Rs. 1,00,000
(b) Rs. 1,50,000
(c) Rs. 2,00,000
(d) Rs. 2,50,000 - Section 31 of Income Tax Act deals with
(a) Repairs and insurance of machinery
(b) Depreciation on building
(c) Deduction on specified businesses
(d) Agriculture extension project - Which one is not a deduction Section in Income Tax Act ?
(a) 80A
(b) 80B
(c) 80X
(d) All of the above
- Which one of the following statements is not true ?