BHU PhD 2019 Commerce

  1. Probability sampling is otherwise called:
    (a) Multiple choice
    (b) Uni-variate Analysis
    (c) Rnadom Sampling
    (d) Bi- variate Analysis
  2. A Researcher Report is a formal statement of_______.
    (a) Researcher Process
    (b) Researcher Problem
    (c) Data Collection
    (d) Data Editing
  3. Which of the following is not convered under Intellectual property Rights?
    (a) Copyrights
    (b) Patents
    (c) Trademarks
    (d) Thesaurus
  4. A bar chart or graph which shows the frequency of occurrence of each value of the variable which is being analysis is termed as:
    (a) Bar chart
    (b) Histogram
    (c) Candle stick
    (d) Tabulation
  5. The depth of research can be judged by:
    (a) Title of the research work
    (b) Objective of research
    (c) Total expenditure of research
    (d) Duration of research
  6. The mean of a set scores is 50 and standard deviation is 10. If the score of each student is doubled the new median will be:
    (a) Remain unchanged
    (b) Increase by double
    (c) Decrease by half
    (d) Become equal to the mean
  7. Which of the following is not a type of research question?
    (a) Predicting an outcome
    (b) Evaluating a phenomenon
    (c) Developing good prctice
    (d) A hypothesis
  8. All of the following are types of non probability sampling technique except?
    (a) Purposing sampling
    (b) Snowball sampling
    (c) Convenience sampling
    (d) Random sampling
  9. To test null hypothesis, a researcher does not use:
    (a) Chi – square test
    (b) t-test
    (c) ANOVA
    (d) Factorial analysis
  10. P-value stands for:
    (a) Probability value
    (b) Preference value
    (c) Pre-determine value
    (d) Prescribed value
  11. In the process of conducting research “ formulation of Hypothesis” is followed by:
    (a) Statement of objective
    (b) Analysis of Data
    (c) Selection of Researcher tools
    (d) Collection of Data
  12. Longitudinal studies of cohort groups__________.
    (a) Study the same people over time
    (b) Use panel member as participants
    (c) Study attitudes at a single point in time
    (d) Use different participants for each sequenced measurement
  13. A deductive theory is one that:
    (a) Allows theory to emerge out of the data
    (b) Involves testing an explicitly defined hypothesis
    (c) Allows for findings to feed back into the stock of knowledge
    (d) Uses qualitative methods Whenever possible
  14. Meta data is the data choice Question
    (a) Distribute other data
    (b) Collection other data
    (c) Describes the other data
    (d) Destroy the data
  15. Randomization is done to:
    (a) Increase bias
    (b) Reduce bias
    (c) For making hypothesis
    (d) To increase drug efficacy
  16. Data is represented in form of notes, recording and video tapes in:
    (a) Qualitative Research
    (b) Quantitative Research
    (c) Experimental Research
    (d) Descriptive Research
  17. Grounded theory is often used in formulation of :
    (a) Policies and programme evaluation research
    (b) Opportunity for exploring the facts
    (c) Categorizing data
    (d) Understanding the culture
  18. Read the statements A and B and choose the correct option:
    Statement A: Variables can be manipulated, controlled or observed by the experimenter.
    Statement B: Variables are not related to theoretical concepts.
    (a) Both the statements are true
    (b) Statements A is true but B is false
    (c) Both the statements are false
    (d) Statements A is false but B is true
  19. Which of the following is not a category of legal research?
    (a) A Parasitic discipline of law
    (b) A practical discipline of law
    (c) An aspect of the humanities
    (d) An aspect of social science
  20. Rejection of null hypothesis when it is true is called:
    (a) Tyep II error
    (b) Type I error
    (c) Sampling error
    (d) Standard error
  21. In a research study one of the variables selected was (students) parents’ occupation such as business, farming, service etc. What level of measurement is this?
    (a) Nominal
    (b) Ordinal
    (c) Interval
    (d) Ratio
  22. What is the standard error?
    (a) Standard deviation of the sampling distribution of a statistic
    (b) Model error value of the standard range of a statistic
    (c) Error in the calculation of standard deviation of a statistic
    (d) Standardized statistic to minimize error
  23. Which of the following is helpful in determining sample size?
    (a) Russel 2000 Index
    (b) Cochran’s formula
    (c) Tussad’s formula
    (d) Spearman’s formula
  24. Which of the following is not true about the case study method?
    (a) It is an expensive method of research
    (b) There are many changes of making errors
    (c) It is mainly qualitative in nature
    (d) It is quantitative in nature
  25. Read statement A and B and choose the correct option:
    Statement A: The Latin square design has an advantage over randomized block design because it is possible to control the effects of two secondary variables.
    Statement B: A2x2x2 factorial design has six independent variables.
    (a) Both A and B are true
    (b) A is true and B is false
    (c) Both A and B are false
    (d) A is false but B is true
  26. A researcher is invstigating teacher’s attitude towards year-round schooling. She is particulary interested in describing the attitude of teachers from small, medium, and large schools. Which sampling procedure should be used by her to ensure her sample is representative of these types of schools?
    (a) Cluster
    (b) Quota
    (c) Systematic
    (d) Stratified
  27. Which of the following type of research focuses on amending the prevailing situations?
    (a) Action research
    (b) Experimental research
    (c) Fundamental research
    (d) Conclusive research
  28. If there are eight categories or classes in a goodness of fit test, what will be the degree of freedom?
    (a) 8
    (b) 7
    (c) 6
    (d) Cannot tell on the basis of the information given
  29. Qualitative research helps in collecting data under more_______situations.
    (a) Normal
    (b) Natural
    (c) Experimental
    (d) Artifical
  30. Read statement A and B and choose the correct option:
    Statement A : A case study can be used only in clinical psychology.
    Statement B: The approach of case study is based on the artificial atmosphere.
    (a) Both A and B are true
    (b) Statement A is true and B is false
    (c) Both A and B are false
    (d) Statement A is false but B is true
  31. Which type of research focus on what will be?
    (a) Experimental
    (b) Case study
    (c) Survey
    (d) Ex post facto
  32. Which of the following should be up to date, complete and affordable for proper sampling?
    (a) Sampling technique
    (b) Sample frame
    (c) Respondents
    (d) Tools for data collection
  33. What is a research design?
    (a) A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory
    (b) The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods
    (c) The style in which you present your research findings, e.g. a graph
    (d) A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data
  34. If a study is “reliable” , this means that:
    (a) It was conducted by a reputed researcher who can be trusted
    (b) There measure devised for concepts are stable on different occasions
    (c) The finding can be generalized to other social settings
    (d) The methods are stated clearly enough for the research to be replicated
  35. Ethical norms in research does not involve guidelines for which of the following?
    (a) Thesis format
    (b) Copyright
    (c) Patenting policy
    (d) Data sharing policy
  36. ____is not a source of Hypothesis.
    (a) Intuition
    (b) Knowledge
    (c) Energy
    (d) Theory
  37. Which of the following variables cannot be expressed in quantitative terms?
    (a) Socio- economic status
    (b) Marital status
    (c) Numerical aptitude
    (d) Professional aptitude
  38. Which of the following is not a citizen style?
    (a) A.P.A.
    (b) M.L.A.
    (c) Chicago
    (d) Ohio
  39. Which of the following is not a define characteristics of non-doctrinal research?
    (a) It is organized around legal principles and appellate court decisions.
    (b) It puts lesser emphasis upon doctrines.
    (c) It seeks to answer broader and numerous questions.
    (d) It may involve the use of research tools and perspective not peculiar to law.
  40. Which of the following is not true about positivism?
    (a) It is a associated with Auguste Comte
    (b) It denies metaphysical speculation
    (c) It emphasizes on objectivity
    (d) It is a method used in qualitative research
  41. The primary qualities that make accounting information useful for decision-making are:
    (a) Comparability and Consistency
    (b) Materiality and Timeliness
    (c) Relevance and Reliability
    (d) Comparability and Reliability
  42. Net profit is reflected in higher net worth and loss is reflected in lower cash balance:
    (a) First part true and second part false
    (b) First part false and second part true
    (c) Both parts are true
    (d) Both parts are false
  43. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
    List I
    A. Accounting for fixed Assets
    B. Valuation of Inventories
    C. Cash flow Statement
    D. Depreciation Accounting
    List II
    i. AS-6
    ii. AS -3
    iii. AS-2
    iv. AS-10
    Codes:
    A B C D
    (a) iv, iii, ii, i
    (b) i,ii, iii, iv
    (c) ii, iii, iv, i
    (d) iv, ii, i, iii
  44. The difference in fixed and variable cost has a special significance in preparation
    Of:
    (a) Cash Budget
    (b) Static Budget
    (c) Flexible Budget
    (d) None of the three
  45. The current ratio of a company is 2:1 State in each of the following cases, Whether the ratio will improve or decline or will have no change:
    (a) Payment of a current liability
    (b) Sale of motor car for cash at slight loss
    (c) Cash collected from customers
    (d) Borrow money on an interest bearing promissory note
    Codes:
    A B C D
    (a) a –Improve, b- Improve, C-No Change,D-Decline
    (b) a-Decline, b-Improve, C-Improve, D-No change
    (c) a-No change,b-Decline,C-Improve, D- Improve
    (d) a- Improve, b-Imprvie, C-Improve, D-Decline
  46. How many schedules are in the balance sheet of a company?
    (a) 16
    (b) 12
    (c) 11
    (d) 14
  47. Fixed cost per unit decrease when:
    (a) Production volume decreases
    (b) Production volume increases
    (c) Variable cost increase
    (d) Variable cost decrease
  48. Which of the following is correct?
    (a)Gross profit+ Sales+Direct+expenses+Purchases+ Closing stock= Opening Stock
    (b) Gross profit+ Direct expenses+ Purchase+Closing Stock-Opening stock= Sales
    (c) Gross profit+ Direct expenses+ Opening stock+ Purchase+ Closing stock= Sales
    (d) Gross profit+ Direct expenses+ Purchase + Opening stock – Closing stock= Sales
  49. Selling price per unit Rs. 9, Total fixed cost Rs. 63,000, Variable cost per unit Rs. 6. What is the amount of break- even sales?
    (a) Rs. 84,000
    (b) Rs. 21,000
    (c) Rs. 63,000
    (d) Rs. 1,89,000
  50. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:
    List I (Term)
    A. Amortisation
    B. Depreciation
    C. Appreciation
    D. Depeltion
    List II
    i. Land
    ii. Building
    iii. Oil well
    iv. Patent
    Codes
    A B C D
    (a) iv, ii, i, iii
    (b) ii, iv , iii, i
    (c) iii, I, iv, ii
    (d) i, ii, iii, iv
  51. What is the cost of gods sold?
    Cost of production
    Stock of finished good:
    Opening
    Closing
    Work in progress
    Operating
    Closing
    List II
    i. 1,20,000
    ii. 20,000
    iii. 7,000
    iv. 13.000
    (a) Rs. 1,30,000
    (b) Rs. 1,24,000
    (c) Rs. 1,14,000
    (d) Rs. 1,10,000
  52. Profit as per cost books is Rs. 70,000. If Rs. 5,000 of interest on debentures has not been shown in financial books then what will be the profit as per financial books?
    (a) Rs. 65,000
    (b) Rs. 70,000
    (c) Rs. 75,000
    (d) None of the three
  53. While calculation funds from operation, which of the following items is deducted from the net profit:
    (a) Loss on sale of fixed asset
    (b) Non-operating income
    (c) Depreciation on fixed assets
    (d) None of the three
  54. Valuation Balance sheet is prepared in case of:
    (a) Banking companies
    (b) Government Companies
    (c) Life Insurance Companies
    (d) None of three
  55. Debenture holders are the:
    (a) Customers of the company
    (b) Owners of the company
    (c) Creditors of the company
    (d) None of the above
  56. Net Working Capital refers to:
    (a) Total assets – Fixed assets
    (b) Total assets – Current assets
    (c) Current assets – Current liabilities
    (d) Current assets – Inventories
  57. Which of the following is/are the assumptions underlying Modigliani and Miller Model?
    (a) Capital markets are perfect
    (b) Investors are assumed to be rational and behave accordigly
    (c) There is no corporate or personal income tax
    (d) All of the three
  58. Dividend Payout Ratio is equal to:
    (a) Dividend yield plus capital gains yield
    (b) Dividend per share divided by earning per share
    (c) Dividend per share divided by per value per share
    (d) Dividend per share divided by market price per share
  59. Financial risk is mostly associated with:
    (a) Use of equity financing by the companies
    (b) Use of debt financing by the companies
    (c) Use of preference financing by the companies
    (d) Use of retained earning financing by the companies
  60. The type of risk is avoidable through proper diversification:
    (a) Portfolio risk
    (b) Systematic risk
    (c) Unsystematic risk
    (d) Total risk
  61. Proposal is accepted under Net Present Value (NPV) method of capital budgeting when:
    (a) NPV is zero
    (b) NPV is negative
    (c) NPV is positive
    (d) NPV is infinity
  62. The value of EBIT at which EPS is equal to zero, is known as:
    (a) Product Break-event point
    (b) Financial Break –even Point
    (c) Operating Break- even Point
    (d) Overall Break-even Point
  63. Which of the following is identified as money market security?
    (a) Equity share
    (b) Preference share
    (c) Debenture
    (d) Commercial paper
  64. Under which of the following approach, cost of equity capital is supposed to be constant with the change in leverage?
    (a) Net Income Approach
    (b) Modigliani- Miller Approach
    (c) Net Operating income Approach
    (d) Traditional Approach
  65. According to Black schools model, purchaser can borrow fraction of security at risk free interest rate which is :
    (a) Short term
    (b) Long term
    (c) Transaction cost
    (d) No transaction cost
  66. Option which can not be exercised before an expiry date is known as:
    (a) American option
    (b) European option
    (c) Australian option
    (d) None of the three
  67. Discounted cash flow analysis is also classified as:
    (a) Time value of equity
    (b) Time value of bonds
    (c) Time value of money
    (d) Time value of treasury bonds
  68. The prime objective of the financial management is supposed to:
    (a) Maximise revenue
    (b) Minimise cost
    (c) Maximise wealth of the owners
    (d) Maximise profit of the concern
  69. CAPM model stands for:
    (a) Capital Asset promotion model
    (b) Capital Asset Pricing Model
    (c) Capital Asset Product Model
    (d) Capital Asset Profit Model
  70. Average cost of capital of a company is the :
    (a) Average cost of equity shares and debentures
    (b) Average equity and preference shares
    (c) Average cost of equity shares and all sources of long term funds
    (d) Average cost of short term funds
  71. Employment Exchange Agencies are concerned with:
    (a) Recruitment
    (b) Selection
    (c) Placement
    (d) Induction
  72. “Take my physical assets, leave my people and in five years I will have it all back” Who said this statement?
    (a) Bill gates
    (b) Alfred solan
    (c) Michal Jucious
    (d) E.F.L. Breach
  73. Human Resource Planning is essentially meant for ensuring:
    (a) Promotion in time
    (b) Payment of wages and salary in time
    (c) Right number of people in right kind
    (d) Appropriate training programmes
  74. Which one of the following helps in placing a proper person to proper job?
    (a) Job Evaluation
    (b) Job Analysis
    (c) Job Satisfaction
    (d) Job Rotation
  75. Which one of the following is not a principal of job evaluation ?
    (a) Principal of Discrimination
    (b) Principal of Objectivity
    (c) Principal of selectivity
    (d) Principal of Equity and Social Justice
  76. Sensitivity training is also known as:
    (a) S-group training
    (b) P-group training
    (c) L-group training
    (d) T-group training
  77. Which one of the following is not a modern technique of performance appraisal?
    (a) Human Resource Accounting
    (b) 360 Degree performance Appraisal
    (c) Graphic scale method
    (d) Potential Appraisal
  78. Which of the following is not a fringe benefit?
    (a) Free education to the childern
    (b) Dearness allowance
    (c) Subsidised canteen facility
    (d) Transport facility
  79. X and Y theory was propounded by:
    (a) Fredrick Herzberg
    (b) A.H. Maslo
    (c) Porter and Lawler
    (d) Douglas McGrogor
  80. A person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory under factories act is called as:
    (a) Occupier
    (b) Managing Director
    (c) Chairman
    (d) Manager
  81. Which of the following is a machinery for the settlement of industrial disputes in India?
    (a) National Commission on Labour
    (b) Board of Conciliation
    (c) Wage Board
    (d) Standing Labour Committee
  82. Which of the following come under the category of statutory Welfare schemes under Factories Act?
    (a) Housing facilities
    (b) Transport Facilities
    (c) Lunch rooms and rest rooms
    (d) Training
  83. Which of the following is not pre-requisites of successful collective bargaining?
    (a) Bargaining Agent
    (b) Unfaithful interpretation
    (c) Honouring Agreement
    (d) Reliance of facts rather than emotions
  84. Which one of the following is not included in retirement benefits?
    (a) Gratuity Benefits
    (b) Social security Benefits
    (c) Flexi- Time Benefits
    (d) Pension Benefits
  85. Which one of the following is not a level of workers participation in Management ?
    (a) Negotiative
    (b) Informative
    (c) Consultative
    (d) Administrative
  86. The word of marketing mix for first time used by:
    (a) Philip Kotler
    (b) Neil H.Borden
    (c) R.S. Davar
    (d) Mc Carthy
  87. Social concept of marketing was given by:
    (a) Philip Kotler
    (b) Peter F. Drucker
    (c) Kelly E.J.
    (d) R. Meyer
  88. Which of the following is not physical distribution function of marketing?
    (a) Transportation
    (b) Warehousing
    (c) Storage
    (d) Retaling
  89. Which of the following is a psychographic basis of market segmentation?
    (a) Family size
    (b) Religion
    (c) Income
    (d) Life style
  90. As per Maslow’s Hierarchy of needs, the most basis needs are categorized as:
    (a) Ego needs
    (b) Physiological needs
    (c) Social needs
    (d) Safety needs
  91. Market modification and product modification strategies used in which stage of PLC?
    (a) Introduction stage
    (b) Growth stage
    (c) Maturity stage
    (d) Decline stage
  92. Adding value to an existing brand through improving the product and its overall appeal is called:
    (a) Brand union
    (b) Brand extension
    (c) Brand rejuvenation
    (d) Brand contraction
  93. A market in which there are a few sellers who are highly sensitive to each other’s pricing and marketing strategies is:
    (a) Perfect competition
    (b) Oligopolistic competition
    (c) Monopoly
    (d) Monopolistic competition
  94. The communication process of choosing symbols that convey thoughts is called:
    (a) Encoding
    (b) Decoding
    (c) Noise
    (d) Receiver
  95. Loco price quoted includes:
    (a) Cost of good plus profit
    (b) All cost and charging for placing the goods nearing transportation agency
    (c) Cost of goods, cost of loading and freight charges
    (d) Net price after discount
  96. Pricing where the firm in industry initiates the price changes, is called:
    (a) Leader price policy
    (b) Psychological price policy
    (c) Skimming price policy
    (d) Perceived value price policy
  97. Concept of 3Rs. As an objective of marketing research, Recruiting, Regaining and Retaining of customers were given by:
    (a) D.G. Bakken
    (b) Philip Kotler
    (c) D.S. Tull
    (d) Hawkins
  98. Who propsed the concept of 4C as element of marketing-mix?
    (a) Philip Kotler
    (b) Lauterborn
    (c) Albert Frery
    (d) Mc Carthy
  99. If a low price product is added in product line under product line strategy is known as:
    (a) Trading up
    (b) Trading down
    (c) Trading extension
    (d) Trading contraction
  100. Which of the following is not an element of digital marketing?
    (a) SEO
    (b) PPC
    (c) Content Marketing
    (d) SOS

    Answer Key

    1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (d) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (b) 7 (d) 8 (d) 9 (d) 10 (a) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (b) 16 (a) 17 (a) 18 (b) 19 (a) 20 (b) 21 (a) 22 (a) 23 (b) 24 (d) 25 (b) 26 (d) 27 (a) 28 (b) 29 (b) 30 (c) 31 (a) 32 (b) 33 (d) 34 (b) 35 (a) 36 (c) 37 (c) 38 (d) 39 (a) 40 (d) 41 (c) 42 (a) 43 (a) 44 (c) 45 (a) 46 (b) 47 (b) 48 (d) 49 (d) 50 (a) 51 (a) 52 (b) 53 (b) 54 (c) 55 (c) 56 (c) 57 (d) 58 (b) 59 (b) 60 (c) 61 (c) 62 (b) 63 (d) 64 (a) 65 (a) 66 (b) 67 (c) 68 (c) 69 (b) 70 (c) 71 (a) 72 (b) 73 (c) 74 (b) 75 (a) 76 (d) 77 (c) 78 (b) 79 (d) 80 (a) 81 (b) 82 (c) 83 (b) 84 (c) 85 (d) 86 (b) 87 (a) 88 (d) 89 (d) 90 (b) 91 (c) 92 (c) 93 (b) 94 (a) 95 (a) 96 (a) 97 (a) 98 (b) 99 (b) 100 (d)