BHU B.COM Entrance Question Paper 2016

  1. The total number of Stock Exchange in India is
    (a) 20
    (b) 21
    (c) 22
    (d) 23
  2. On dissolution of a firm, all the assets are transferred to Realization Account at their
    (a) Written value
    (b) Market value
    (c) Book value
    (d) Cost or market value whichever is less
  3. SEBI was established in
    (a) 1988
    (b) 1998
    (c) 1992
    (d) 2002
  4. In India NIFTY and SENSEX are calculated on the basis of
    (a) Market capitalization
    (b) Paid up capital
    (c) Free float market capitalization
    (d) Authorized share capital
  5. The financial instrument with shortest maturity period is
    (a) Call money
    (b) Certificate of deposit
    (c) Commercial bill
    (d) Treasury bill
  6. Commercial banks or Development banks issue this document
    (a) Commercial bill
    (b) Treasury bill
    (c) Certificate of deposit
    (d) Commercial paper
  7. When shares are issued at premium, premium amount may be utilized for
    (a) Issue of bonus share
    (b) Payment of dividend
    (c) Payment of operating expenses
    (d) Redemption of debentures
  8. Which one of the following is not the objectives of SEBI?
    (a) Protection to the investors
    (b) Control over brokers
    (c) Protection to the industrialists
    (d) Checking the insider trading
  9. Which one of the following is not a function of the Capital market?
    (a) Gilt-edge market
    (b) Commercial paper market
    (c) New issue market
    (d) Secondary capital market
  10. Which one of the following is not a function of the Capital market?
    (a) Origination of securities
    (b) Underwriting of securities
    (c) Distribution of securities
    (d) Administration of securities
  11. Listing of the securities on the stock exchange does not help the company in
    (a) Releasing funds
    (b) Curtailing underwriting costs
    (c) Widening the market of securities
    (d) Guaranteeing the kindness of securities
  12. The most important function of a stock exchange is to
    (a) Safeguard the interest of investors
    (b) Help in the capital formation in the country
    (c) Provides facilities for speculation
    (d) Provides a ready market for all securities
  13. Which one of the following is not a party of depository system?
    (a) The Depository Participant
    (b) The investor
    (c) The Broker
    (d) The issuing Company
  14. Which one of the following is not a method of floating new issues in the ‘Primary market’?
    (a) Public issue by prospectus
    (b) Offer for sale
    (c) Making the contract
    (d) Private placement
  15. In which market, old shares are purchased and sold?
    (a) Capital market
    (b) Primary market
    (c) Secondary market
    (d) Money market
  16. Financial statement Analysis does not include
    (a) Trend Analysis
    (b) Fund flow Analysis
    (c) Cash flow Analysis
    (d) Income Statement
  17. Calculate operating profit ratio when net sales are Rs. 20,00,000, Gross profit is 20 Percent and operating expenses Rs. 40,000
    (a) 14%
    (b) 20%
    (c) 18%
    (d) 16%
  18. Claim not yet acknowledged as debt against the company is called
    (a) Current liability
    (b) Contingent liability
    (c) Provisions
    (d) Reserve and surplus
  19. Sale of fixed assets is to be shown under the head
    (a) Operating activities
    (b) Financing activities
    (c) Investing activities
    (d)  Any other activities
  20. The expenses related to the main operations of the business are
    (a) Selling expenses
    (b)Administrative expenses
    (c) Operating expenses
    (d) Non-administrative expenses
  21. A financial statement that shows both rupees and percentages in the report is referred to as
    (a) A common size statement
    (b) A relative statement of equity
    (c) A balance sheet
    (d) A proportional financial statement
  22. Net working capital is
    (a) Current liabilities less current assets
    (b) Marketable securities and cash
    (c) The excess of current assets over current liabilities
    (d) Total assets less current assets
  23. While preparing cash flow statement ‘cash and cash equivalents’ consist of assets which can be converted into cash within
    (a) 2 months
    (b) 4 months
    (c)  3 months
    (d) 6 months
  24. The ratio which provide information regarding the long-run operation of the business is
    (a) Activity
    (b) Solvency
    (c) Profitability
    (d) Liquidity
  25. Amount set aside to meet the losses due to bad debt is a
    (a) Provision
    (b) Reserve
    (c) Liability
    (d) Fund
  26. The cost of goods sold is Rs.10,00,000, Operating stocks Rs. 80,000. Closing stock Rs. 1,20,000. Calculating inventory turnover ratio
    (a) 40 times
    (b) 10 times
    (c) 30 times
    (d) 20 times
  27. Accrued incomes are shown under
    (a) Inventories
    (b) Investment
    (c) Other current assets
    (d) Current investment
  28. Discount on issue of shares and debentures is
    (a) Fictitious assets
    (b) Current assets
    (c) Current liabilities
    (d) Miscellaneous expenditures
  29. In Balance sheet, assets are shown in the order of
    (a) Permanence
    (b) Liquidity
    (c) Market value
    (d) None of these
  30. In a business, cash sales are Rs. 7,20,000, credit sales are Rs. 80,000, cost of goods sold is Rs. 6,00,000. Find Gross Profit Ratio
    (a) 15%
    (b) 65%
    (c) 25%
    (d) 35%
  31. Marginal utility is equal to
    (a) Total utility minus average utility
    (b) Additional to total utility
    (c) Total utility divided by the number of units consumed
    (d) Total utility plus average utility
  32. The second glass of water generally gives less utility to a thirsty person. This happen because of
    (a) Law of diminishing marginal utility
    (b) Law of diminishing returns
    (c) Law of equi-marginal utility
    (d) Law of demand
  33. Demand curve for a Giffen Good will be
    (a) Horizontal
    (b) Vertical
    (c) Slopping downward to the right
    (d) Slopping upward to the right
  34. A consumer is in equilibrium, when his budget line is
    (a) Above the indifference curve
    (b) Below the indifference curve
    (c) Tangent to the indifference curve
    (d) Cut the indifference curve
  35. For an inferior good, income elasticity of demand is
    (a) Negative
    (b) Positive
    (c) Zero
    (d) Infinity
  36. Average product is maximum when
    (a) Marginal product is greater than the average product
    (b) Marginal product is less than the average product
    (c) Marginal product is equal to the average product
    (d) Marginal product is negative
  37. With increase in output which cost increase continuously?
    (a) Average cost
    (b) Marginal cost
    (c) Fixed cost
    (d) Variable cost
  38. Which of the following curves is not U-shaped?
    (a) Average fixed cost curve
    (b) Average variable cost, curve
    (c) Average total cost curve
    (d) Marginal cost curve
  39. The demand curve of a firm under a perfectly competitive market will be
    (a) Vertical
    (b) Horizontal
    (c) Negatively slopped
    (d) Positively slopped
  40. The concept of selling cost was propounded by
    (a) Alferd Marshall
    (b) Edward Chamberlain
    (c) Joan Robinson
    (d) A.C. Pigou
  41. Ordinal measure of utility is required ins
    (a) Utility analysis
    (b) Demand curve analysis
    (c) Indifference curve analysis
    (d) Revealed preference analysis
  42. Under monopolistic competition, a seller gains abnormal profit when
    (a) MR=MC
    (b) AR=AC
    (c) AR>AC
    (d) AR<AC
  43. Ac cording to Marshall, the law of diminishing returns applies on
    (a)  Agriculture
    (b) Industry
    (c) Neither agriculture nor industry
    (d) Agriculture and industry both
  44. According to Keynesian theory of employment, employment depends on
    (a) Aggregate
    (b)Aggregate supply
    (c)Effective demand
    (d) Quantity of money
  45. On which date the Rail Budget for 2016-17 was presented in Parliament?
    (a) 25th February,2016
    (b) 27th February,2016
    (c) 28th February,2016
    (d) 29th February,2016
  46. A sole proprietor decided to use the business bank account also for his personal affairs. Which of the following accounting principles is violated?
    (a) Going concern
    (b) Consistency
    (c) Entity
    (d) Dual aspect
  47. If a trader’s sales amount to Rs.18,000 and his gross profit and net profit are 60% and 40% of sales respectively, then his expenses are
    (a) Rs.7,200
    (b) Rs.2,500
    (c) Rs.3,600
    (d) Rs. 2,600
  48. Which one of the following is correct?
    (a) Gross profit + Sales +Direct expenses + Purchases + Closing stock = Opening stock
    (b) Gross profit + Direct expenses + Purchases + Closing stock- Opening stock= Sales
    (c) Gross profit + Direct expenses + Purchases + Opening stock- Closing stock= Sales
    (d) Gross profit + Direct expenses + Purchases + Opening stock+ Sales= Closing stock
  49. Outstanding expenses appearing in trial balance will be shown on
    (a) Debit side of profit & Loss Account
    (b) Debit side of Trading Account
    (c) Liabilities side of Balance sheet
    (d) Assets side of Balance sheet
  50. Goods of the value of Rs.500 withdrawn by the owner of the business for personal use should be credited to
    (a) Drawing A/c
    (b) Sales A/c
    (c) Owner’s A/c
    (d) Purchase A/c
  51. A and B partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2. C is admitted with 1/3 share in the profit. What will be the new profit-loss sharing ratio?
    (a) 3:2:3
    (b) 6:4:5
    (c) 6:4:3
    (d) 3:2:5
  52. In the event of death of a partner, the accumulated profits and losses are shared by the partners in their
    (a) Old profit sharing ratio
    (b) New profit sharing ratio
    (c) Capital ratio
    (d) Equally
  53. Income & Expenditure Account is a
    (a) Real account
    (b) Nominal account
    (c) Personal account
    (d) Statement
  54. Under Annuity Method, the amount of depreciation
    (a) Fixed for all years
    (b) Increase every year
    (c) Decrease every year
    (d) None of these
  55. X co. Ltd. Forfeited 20 shares of Rs. 10 each on which Rs. 5 per share were paid up. The company issued shares @Rs.8 as fully paid up. Amount transfer to capital reserve will be
    (a) Rs.40
    (b) Rs.60
    (c) Rs.20
    (d) Rs.100
  56. All adjustment entries in Final A/cs are written at two places
    (a) Trading Account and Balance sheet
    (b) Profit & Loss Account and Balance sheet
    (c) Trading Account and profit & Loss account
    (d) Trading or profit & Loss Account and Balance sheet
  57. Profit on cancellation of own debentures is transferred to
    (a) General Reserve
    (b) Capital Reserve
    (c) Secret Reserve
    (d) Profit &Loss appropriation Account
  58. Interest on drawing is
    (a) An expenditure for business
    (b) A gain for the business
    (c) neither expenditure nor gain
    (d) Expenditure and gain both
  59. Del Credere commission is calculated on
    (a) Cash sales
    (b) Credit sales
    (c) Total sales
    (d) Credit sales reduced by cash sales
  60. The use of FIFO method is suitable
    (a) At rising prices
    (b) At falling prices
    (c) At constant prices
    (d) At fluctuating prices
  61. Actual money refers to
    (a) Unit of currency
    (b) Money of account
    (c) Commodity
    (d) Reprehensive money
  62. Monetary standard refers to
    (a) Principle methods of regulating the quantity of standard money
    (b) Principle methods of regulating the exchange value of standard money
    (c) Principle method of regulating the quantity and the exchange value of standard money
    (d) Principle method of regulating the purchasing power of standard money
  63. NABARD has been established on the recommendation of
    (a) Talwar committee
    (b) Tandon committee
    (c) Narshimhan committee
    (d) Shivraman committee
  64. The relationship between value of money and general price-level is
    (a) Direct
    (b) Indirect
    (c) Inverse proportions
    (d) Proportional
  65. Which of the following is considered as the Economic Evil of Money?
    (a) Encouragement to borrowing
    (b) Encouragement to overcapitalisation
    (c) Encouragement to materialism
    (d) Encouragement to borrowing and overcapitalization
  66. Indian Rupee is
    (a) Standard money
    (b) Token money
    (c) Standard token money
    (d) Optional money
  67. The prevalent name of Gold Currency standard is
    (a) Full Gold standard
    (b) Gold Bullion standard
    (c) Gold Exchange standard
    (d) Gold Parity standard
  68. According to transaction approach, which of the following factors determine the general price level?
    (a) Quantity of money in circulation, its velocity and the volume of trade
    (b) Volume of credit instrument and its velocity
    (c) Quantity of money in circulation, volume of credit instrument and volume of trade
    (d) (a) and (b) above
  69. To reduce the inflationary gap
    (a) The amount of tax should be increased
    (b) Production of goods and services should be increased
    (c) (a) and (b) above should be adopted
    (d) Dear credit policy should be adopted
  70. Which of the following is an asset for a bank?
    (a) Capital
    (b) Reserve Fund
    (c) Loans and Advances
    (d) Bills payable
  71. Of all the assets of a bank, the most non-profitable asset is
    (a) Building and furnitures
    (b) Cash
    (c) Call money
    (d) Buildings, Furnitures and cash
  72. Dead stock of a bank is
    (a) Office, building and furnitures
    (b) Money at call and short notice
    (c) Treasury bills
    (d) Commercial bills
  73. The issue of notes by the RBI is
    (a) Proportional Reserve system
    (b) Minimum Reserve system
    (c) Fixed Reserve system
    (d)  Maximum Reserve system
  74. Which of the following is not a quantitative method of credit control?
    (a) Discount rate
    (b)Open market operations
    (c) Variable reserve ratio
    (d) Credit rationing
  75. Which of the following is used for International Monetary Transfer?
    (a) RTGS
    (b) NEET
    (c) SWIFT
    (d) None of these
  76. If Raj sells iron Rs. 400 gaining ¼ of its CP, find the gain percent
    (a) 20%
    (b) 50%
    (c) 25%
    (d) 75%
  77. By selling 100 pens, Mohan gains the SP of 40 pens. Find his gain percent
    (a) 40%
    (b)  66 2/3 %
    (c) 33 1/3%
    (d) 44 3/4%
  78. What price should Ratan mark on a Fan which costs him Rs. 3,000, so as to gain 20% after allowing a discount of 10%?
    (a) Rs. 5,000
    (b)Rs. 6,000
    (c) Rs. 3,600
    (d) Rs. 4,000
  79. Ravi and Karti borrowed Rs. 3,500 and Rs. 4,000 respectively at the same rate of interest for 21/2
    Years. If Karti paid Rs. 150 more than Ravi, Find the rate of interest.
    (a) 12% p.a.
    (b) 14% p.a.
    (c) 11% p.a.
    (d) 10% p.a.
  80. A c ertain sum of money amounts to Rs. 1,260 in 2years and to Rs. 1,350 in 5 years. Find the rate of interest
    (a)  3.5%
    (b) 2.5%
    (c) 4%
    (d) 2%
  81. Sudhihr and Karim together can complete a work in 15 days. If Sudhir is three times as good a workman as Karim, in how many days will Sudhir alone finish the work?
    (a) 10 days
    (b) 25 days
    (c)  20 days
    (d) 15 days
  82. A 175 meters long train crosses a 185 meters long tunnel in 45 sec. find speed of the in km/hr
    (a) 20.8 km/hr
    (b) 28.8 km/hr
    (c) 18.0 km/hr
    (d) 8 km/hr
  83. Simplify
    (5x+2)/(4x-8) – ( 2x+5)/( x^2-x-2)
    (a) (5x+9)/(4x+4)
    (b) (2x+5)/(4x-2)
    (c) (2x+3)/(2x+4)
    (d) (5x+3)/(4x-4)
  84. A p  ath of uniform which 3cm runs around the outside of a square park of side 18cm. find the area of the path
    (a) 324cm2
    (b) 476cm2
    (c) 188cm2
    (d) 252cm2
  85. Determine the area of a triangle whose sides are 5cm, 13cm and 12cm
    (a) 36cm2
    (b) 30cm2
    (c) 42cm2
    (d) 38cm2
  86. A copper wire when bent in the form of a square encloses an area of 121 cm2. If the same wire is bent in the form of a circle, find the area of the circle
    (a) 154cm2
    (b) 134cm2
    (c) 164cm2
    (d) 124cm2
  87. A sum of money is divided among Dev and Deep in the ratio 5:13. If Deep’s share is Rs. 780, Find the sum of money
    (a) Rs.1,140
    (b) Rs.1,260
    (c) Rs.1,090
    (d) Rs.1,080
  88. 15 men can repair a road in 28 days, how long will 35 men take to do so?
    (a) 18days
    (b) 12 days
    (c) 14 days
    (d) 16 dasy
  89. In Windows operating system, the type of file with the .mpeg extension indicates
    (a) Audio
    (b) Video
    (c) Temporary
    (d) System
  90. The quality of printer is measured by which unit?
    (a) CPI
    (b) MPI
    (c) RTI
    (d) DPI
  91. Which was the most popular first generation computer?
    (a) IBM 1650
    (b) IBM 360
    (c) IBM 1130
    (d) IBM 2700
  92. Which will not harm a computer system?
    (a) Firewall
    (b) Virus
    (c) Trojan Horse
    (d) Worms
  93. Which type of printer uses ‘ribbon’?
    (a) Laser Printer
    (b) Plotter
    (c)  Inkjet
    (d) Dot Matrix Printer
  94. To join the internet, the computer is commected to
    (a) Internet Architecture Board
    (b)Internet Society
    (c) Internet Service provider
    (d) Cyber police
  95. CPU stands for
    (a) Cool processing Unit
    (b) Computer processing unit
    (c) Central processing unit
    (d) Central processing united
  96. DTP stands for
    (a) Data publishing
    (b) Data printing
    (c) Desktop printing
    (d) Desktop publishing
  97. Which one of the following does general calculations for CPU?
    (a) ALU
    (b) BUS
    (c) DIMM
    (d) Control Unit
  98. LAN stands for
    (a) Local Area Network
    (b) Live Area Network
    (c) Lost Area Network
    (d) Long Area Network
  99. Linux is a
    (a) Database
    (b) Graphics
    (c) Operating system
    (d) Animation software
  100. Which one is not an example of computer hardware?
    (a) MS-Word
    (b) Mouse
    (c) Printer
    (d) Moniter
  101. To communicate live through Internet, which one is used?
    (a) Talk
    (b) Chat
    (c) Email
    (d) FTP
  102. Which of the following is an example of Bluetooth?
    (a) Personal Area Network
    (b) Local Area Network
    (c) Virtual Private Network
    (d) Wide Area Network
  103. Size of IPv6 address is
    (a) 32 bits
    (b) 64 bits
    (c) 128 bits
    (d) 265 bits
  104. ‘Theory of Exception’ was propounded by
    (a) Henry Fayol
    (b) Theo Haiman
    (c) F.W. Taylor
    (d) Herbinson and Mayers
  105. Selection of best option among available different options is called
    (a) Planning
    (b) Organization
    (c) Decision making
    (d) Controlling
  106. Which is the right sequence of management functions?
    (a) Planning, Staffing, Organizing, Directing, Motivating and Controlling
    (b) Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Motivating, Directing and Controlling
    (c) Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Motivating and Controlling
    (d) Planning, Staffing, Organizing, Motivating, Directing and Controlling
  107. Find the odd from the following
    (a) Speed boss
    (b) Repairs boss
    (c) Disciplinarian
    (d) Inspector
  108. ‘POSDCORB’ word is given by
    (a) Henry Fayol
    (b) F.W. Taylor
    (c) G.R. Terry
    (d) Urwick and Gulick
  109. Find the odd from the following
    (a) Wheel
    (b) Probability
    (c) Cluster
    (d) Gossip
  110. Which is the highest form of Democratic Organisation form the following?
    (a) Line Organisation
    (b) Line & Staff organisation
    (c) Functional Organisation
    (d) Committee Organisation
  111. Find out the odd from the following
    (a) Game theory
    (b) Race theory
    (c) Queueing Theory
    (d) Decision –tree- theory
  112. When the subordinates are disciplined, experienced and qualified, which of the following leadership styles will be more appropriate?
    (a) Autocratic
    (b) Free -rein
    (c) Negative
    (d) Any style
  113. Which of the following is not an element of planning?
    (a) Objective
    (b) Policy
    (c) Principle
    (d) Strategy
  114. For selection on non-managerial posts, which of the following is useful?
    (a) Patterned interview
    (b) Depth interview
    (c) Non-directive interview
    (d) Stress interview
  115. A promoter of a business enterprise may be
    (a) An Individual
    (b) A firm
    (c) A company
    (d) All of the above
  116. The purchase Manager talking to production Manager is a care of
    (a) Upward communication
    (b) Downward communication
    (c) Diagonal communication
    (d) Horizontal communication
  117. Unity of command is violated under which of the following ?
    (a) Line organisation
    (b) Line & staff organisation
    (c) Functional organisation
    (d) Project organization
  118. The method through which railway engine drivers are trained is known as
    (a) Sensitivity Training
    (b) Vestibule training
    (c) Role playing training
    (d) Virtual training
  119. Which of the following is not an economic objective of business?
    (a) Generation of employment
    (b) Earning profit
    (c) Market standing
    (d) Innovation
  120. Trade includes
    (a) Selling
    (b) Buying
    (c) Manufacturing
    (d) Buying and selling
  121. Which of the following is not a feature of sole proprietorship?
    (a) Risk bearing
    (b) Agreement
    (c) Unlimited liability
    (d) Full control
  122. ‘Membership by birth’ is related to
    (a) Sole trader
    (b) Partnership
    (c) Cooperative Undertaking
    (d) Joint Hindu Family Business
  123. Non – transferability of share is a feature of
    (a) Public company
    (b) Private company
    (c) Partnership
    (d) Holding company
  124. ‘Equal voting Rights’ is related to
    (a) Cooperative organisation
    (b) Public corporation
    (c) Private company
    (d) Government company
  125. Which of the following is not a feature of a company?
    (a) Mutual Agency
    (b) Common Seal
    (c) Artificial person
    (d) Perpetual Succession
  126. Which of the following is not a long term source of business finance:
    (a) Issue of share
    (b) Issue of debentures
    (c) Trade credit
    (d) Financial institutions
  127. Which of the following is an unincorporated organization?
    (a) General partnership
    (b) Limited liability Partnership
    (c) Public limited company
    (d) Private limited company
  128. Limited Liability partnership were introduced by which Act of parliament?
    (a) Limited Partnership Act, 1907
    (b) Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2000
    (c) Partnership Act, 2000
    (d) Company Act, 2013
  129. The major advantage of a franchise is
    (a) Training and managerial assistance
    (b) National recognition
    (c) Personal ownership
    (d) All of the above
  130. ‘Lack of incentive’ is a limitation of
    (a) Sole Trading
    (b) Partnership
    (c) Company
    (d) Joint hindu family business
  131. Open membership is a merit of
    (a) General partnership
    (b) Cooperative organisation
    (c) Private Company
    (d) Public company
  132. Which of the following is not a principal export document?
    (a) Certificate of origin
    (b) Bill of lading
    (c) Mate’s receipt
    (d) Certificate of inspection
  133. The term CIF is used in
    (a) Internal trade
    (b) External trade
    (c) Wholesale trade
    (d) Retail trade
  134. Who presented the union Budget 2016-17 on 29th February, 2016?
    (a) Arun Jairtley
    (b) Amit shah
    (c) Narendra modi
    (d) Nitin gadkari
  135. Who is the chairperson of NITI Aayog?
    (a) President of India
    (b) Finance Minister
    (c) Prime Minister
    (d) Defence Minister
  136. The ‘Swach Bharet Abhiyan’ was launched by Prime Minister on which date?
    (a) 26th January
    (b) 15th August
    (c) 10th September
    (d) 2nd October
  137. Name the 29th State of India which came into existence in June, 2014
    (a) Goa
    (b) Telangana
    (c) Lakshadweep Island
    (d) Andaman and Nicobar Island
  138. Who coined the term ‘Green Revolution” in India?
    (a) Manmohan singh
    (b) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
    (c) Dr. William Gade
    (d) Dr. V.Kurian
  139. India’s First All women Bank, ‘Bhartiya Mahila Bank’ was opened in which year?
    (a) 2012
    (b) 2013
    (c) 2014
    (d) 2015
  140. Which of the following will be simplified by the proposed Goods and Services Tax(GST)?
    (a) Direct Tax
    (b) Indirect Tax
    (c) Sales Tax only
    (d) Sercives Tax only
  141. What is the full form of SEZ?
    (a) Special Economic Zone
    (b) Smart Economic Zone
    (c) Special Electricity Zone
    (d) Smart Electronic Zone
  142. Which of the following sectors is contributing maximum in GDP of India?
    (a) Agriculture sector
    (b) Service sector
    (c) Manufacturing sector
    (d) Mining sector
  143. When was ‘Make in India’ launched in India?
    (a) September 25,2014
    (b) September 25,2015
    (c) April 1,2015
    (d) January 10,2015
  144. When was ‘Digital India’ Launched in India?
    (a) July 1,2015
    (b) March 1,2015
    (c) January 1,2016
    (d) July 26,2015
  145. Which country is not the member of BRICS?
    (a) Brazil
    (b) Russia
    (c) India
    (d) Cuba
  146. UNCTD was established in the year
    (a) 1988
    (b) 1964
    (c) 1956
    (d) 1960
  147. India’s largest exports are to
    (a) USA
    (b) Japan
    (c) Russia
    (d) UK
  148. In Which sector 100% FDI is not allowed in India?
    (a) Education
    (b) Tourism
    (c) Agriculture
    (d) Insurance

    Answer Key

    1 (c) 2 (c) 3 (a) 4 (c) 5 (a) 6 (c) 7 (a) 8 (c) 9 (b) 10 (d) 11 (b) 12 (b) 13 (c) 14 (c) 15 (c) 16 (d) 17 (c) 18 (b) 19 (c) 20 (c) 21 (a) 22 (c) 23 (c) 24 (b) 25 (a) 26 (b) 27 (c) 28 (a) 29 (c) 30 (a) 31 (b) 32 (a) 33 (d) 34 (c) 35 (a) 36 (c) 37 (d) 38 (a) 39 (b) 40 (b) 41 (c) 42 (c) 43 (a) 44 (c) 45 (a) 46 (c) 47 (c) 48 (c) 49 (c) 50 (d) 51 (b) 52 (a) 53 (b) 54 (a) 55 (b) 56 (d) 57 (b) 58 (b) 59 (c) 60 (b) 61 (a) 62 (c) 63 (d) 64 (c) 65 (d) 66 (c) 67 (a) 68 (d) 69 (c) 70 (c) 71 (d) 72 (a) 73 (b) 74 (d) 75 (c) 76 (c) 77 (b) 78 (d) 79 (a) 80 (b) 81 (c) 82 (b) 83 (a) 84 (c) 85 (d) 86 (b) 87 (a) 88 (c) 89 (d) 90 (b) 91 (b) 92 (d) 93 (a) 94 (a) 95 (d) 96 (c) 97 (c) 98 (d) 99 (a) 100 (a)101 (c) 102 (a) 103 (b) 104 (a) 105 (c) 106 (c) 107 (c) 108 (c) 109 (c) 110 (d) 111 (a) 112 (d) 113 (b) 114 (b) 115 (c) 116 (a) 117 (d) 118 (d) 119 (c) 120 (b)121 (a) 122 (d) 123 (b) 124 (d) 125 (c) 126 (a) 127 (a) 128 (c) 129 (a) 130 (b) 131 (d) 132 (c) 133 (b) 134 (c) 135 (b) 136 (a) 137 (c) 138 (d) 139 (b) 140 (c) 141 (b)142 (b) 143 (a) 144 (b) 145 (a) 146 (a) 147 (d) 148 (b) 149 (a) 150 (d)