BHU B.Com Entrance Question 2018

  1. Which of the right segment of management functions?
    (a) Planning , Organising, Staffing, Directing, Co-ordinating , Controlling
    (b) Planning , Organising, Directing, Staffing, Co-ordinating , Controlling
    (c) Planning , Organising, Staffing, Co-ordinating , Directing, Controlling
    (d) Planning , Organising, Directing, Co-ordinating , Staffing, Controlling
  2. “Free-rein” direction’ means”
    (a) Do Whatever is appropriate
    (b) Do Whatever you like
    (c) Do Whatever you feel convenient
    (d) Do Whatever you feel appropriate
  3. An organization engaged in purchasing and selling of services is called:
    (a) Business organization
    (b) Trading organization
    (c) Commercial organization
    (d) Industrial organization
  4. From the following which is not a factor affecting decision relating to selection of a direction technique?
    (a) Nature of subordinates
    (b) Nature of work
    (c) Nature of customers
    (d) Nature of peers
  5. Which of the following form of organization is the most fertile place for innovative ideas?
    (a) Project organization
    (b) Functional organization
    (c) Committee organization
    (d) Matrix organization
  6. “CPM’ Was develop in:
    (a) United state of America
    (b) Japan
    (c) Germany
    (d) France
  7. “Management means decision making” This statements is of:
    (a) Moore
    (b) Simon
    (c) Davis
    (d) Appley
  8. Which of the following is not an element of sound departmentation?
    (a) Control
    (b) Co-ordination
    (c) Specialization
    (d) Supervision
  9. The formulation of future course of action by the management keeping in mind the competitors expected course of action is called:
    (a) Programme
    (b) Objective
    (c) Policy
    (d) Strategy
  10. Scientific concept in management was propounded by :
    (a) Emerson
    (b) Gantt
    (c) Fayol
    (d) Taylor
  11. The focus of planning is:
    (a) Objectives
    (b) Policies
    (c) Methods
    (d) All of the above
  12. When the subordinates have become indiscipline, the most suitable technique of direction will be:
    (a) Democratic technique
    (b) Autocratic technique
    (c) Free-rein technique
    (d) None of the above
  13. Find out the odd from the following with reference to the types of co-ordination:
    (a) Internal-co-ordination
    (b) Self-co-ordination
    (c) Vertical co-ordination
    (d) Horizontal co-ordination
  14. Directions includes:
    (a) Order
    (b) Supervision
    (c) Guidance
    (d) All of the above
  15. Which of the following is not true?
    (a) Request in line organization flow from bottom to top
    (b) One number organization is possible
    (c) Informal organization is formed naturally
    (d) Line organization is most suitable for small units
  16. The monetary policy is announced by the:
    (a) Governor of RBI
    (b) President of India
    (c) Prime minister
    (d) SEBI
  17. United Trade Union Congress is an organization of :
    (a) Workers
    (b) Businessmen
    (c) Producers
    (d) Leaders
  18. Regulatory environment includes:
    (a) Fundamental right
    (b) Fund
    (c) Capital
    (d) Society
  19. Who was closely associated with industrial relations in India?
    (a) B.Kurien
    (b) Gadgil
    (c) V.V. Giri
    (d) Vinoba Bhave
  20. The major provisions for employees health and safety are contained in:
    (a) The industrial Disputes Act, 1947
    (b)The Factories Act, 1948
    (c) The industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act,1946
    (d) The Employees Compensation Act, 1923
  21. What is the method used to determine wage differentials?
    (a) Merit rating
    (b) Job Design
    (c) Job evaluation
    (d) Job analysis
  22. The industrial policy resolution in India was passed in:
    (a) 1931
    (b) 1947
    (c) 1956
    (d) 1999
  23. Under Industrial Policy 1991 which of the industrial are reserved for public sector?
    (a) Railways
    (b) Coal
    (c) Automobiles
    (d) Iron and steel
  24. The ‘Heavy industry’ strategy of the Mahalanobis model was initiated in:
    (a) First Plan
    (b) Second Plan
    (c) Third Plan
    (d) Fourth Plan
  25. In which year foreign exchange management Act(FEMA) was adopted by the parliament in India?
    (a) 1996
    (b) 1997
    (c) 1998
    (d) 1999
  26. SAFTA is related to:
    (a) SAARC
    (b) IBRD
    (c) IMF
    (d) IFC
  27. The trade theory of absolute advantage was developed by:
    (a) Haberler
    (b) David Ricardo
    (c) Adam Smith
    (d) Alfered Marshall
  28. When the per capita income is maximum, the population is:
    (a) Under Population
    (b) Over Population
    (c) Optimum Population
    (d) Static Population
  29. To which of the following the ‘Golden Revolution” relates to the development of Agricultural products?
    (a) Oilseeds
    (b) Pulses
    (c) Horticultural products
    (d) Fodder
  30. SDR is:
    (a) A liability
    (b) A Paper gold
    (c) An assets
    (d) An international unit of currency
  31. Unity of command is violated under:
    (a) Line organization
    (b) Line and staff organization
    (c) Functional organization
    (d) Scalar organization
  32. Which of the following concepts has been propounded by F.W.Taylor?
    (a) Committee Organization
    (b) Functional Organization
    (c) Line and staff organization
    (d) Line organization
  33. Which of the following is also known as the scalar organization?
    (a) Line organization
    (b) Staff organization
    (c) Functional organization
    (d) Project organization
  34. Which of the following has its origin rooted in Military Organization?
    (a) Staff Organization
    (b) Functional Organization
    (c) Line Organization
    (d) Project Organization
  35. Which one of the following does not characterize a line and staff organization?
    (a) Conflict
    (b) Expert advice
    (c) Harmony
    (d) Vertical flow of authority and responsibility
  36. The board of directors of a joint stock company is selected by the:
    (a) Employees
    (b) General public
    (c) Government
    (d) Shareholders
  37. Liability of a partner is:
    (a) Unlimited
    (b) Limited to the extent of his share in profit
    (c) Limited to the extent of his capital
    (d) Limited to the extent of his share of loss
  38. If all the partners are insolvent except one:
    (a) Only partnership is dissolved
    (b) Partnership agreement is dissolved
    (c) The insolvent partners are automatically thrown out form the business
    (d) Partnership firm is dissolved
  39. As per Companies Act, 2013 a company can be formed:
    (a) Even with one person
    (b) With not less than two persons
    (c) With a minimum of seven persons
    (d) With a minimum of Fifty persons
  40. As per the companies Act, 2013 the limit of the number of member for a private company is:
    (a) Fifty
    (b) Hundred
    (c) Two Hundred
    (d) Unlimited
  41. The combination of units engaged in production of a commodity in upward stages of an industry is:
    (a) Forward vertical combination
    (b) Backward vertical combination
    (c) Forward lateral combination
    (d) Forward diagonal combination
  42. When some manufacturing units combine with a unit engaged in manufacturing a main product using the products of such combining units as raw material, it is a case of:
    (a) Convergent lateral combination
    (b) Diagonal combination
    (c) Circular combination
    (d) Convergent diagonal combination
  43. Cartel is formed with the objective of controlling:
    (a) Middlemen
    (b) Speculators
    (c) Service providers
    (d) Sales
  44. Which one of the following is the odd one out?
    (a) ACC
    (b) Coal India
    (c) SAIL
    (d) SEBI
  45. Which one of the following is a form of federation?
    (a) Pool
    (b) Holding Company
    (c) Trade Union
    (d) Merger
  46. Narsimham Committee was related to:
    (a) Higher Education reforms
    (b) Tax structure reforms
    (c) Banking structure reforms
    (d) Medical facility reforms
  47. Which organization issues Monetary Policy in India?
    (a) Parliament
    (b) Reserve Bank of India
    (c) State Bank of India
    (d) Ministry of finance
  48. Which of the following is a feature of good money?
    (a) Abundantly available to everybody
    (b) Shining and clean coins
    (c) Acceptable by everybody
    (d) Perishable
  49. Which of the following is not a function of a Commercial Bank?
    (a) Ensuring security for loans
    (b) Issuing and processing credit cards
    (c) Dealing in foreign exchange
    (d) Controlling monetary policy
  50. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (The World Bank) was established in the year:
    (a) 1944
    (b) 1945
    (c) 1951
    (d) 1961
  51. Who regulates the business of mutual funds in India?
    (a) Reserve Bank of India
    (b) Ministry of finance
    (c) SEBI
    (d) Stock Exchange
  52. Fixed Deposit is also referred to as:
    (a) Term Deposit
    (b) Recurring Deposit
    (c) Demand Deposit
    (d) Current Deposit
  53. When criminals use innocent persons detail to open or use an account to carry out financial transactions, it is known as:
    (a) Money Laundering
    (b) Phishing
    (c) Identity Theft
    (d) Real Time Gross Settlement
  54. In the field of banking Sector, what is the full form of ECS?
    (a) E-commerce service
    (b) Enity Component system
    (c) Embodied cognitive science
    (d) Electronic clearing service
  55. Which of the following organization provides guarantee to the exports?
    (a) Exim Bank
    (b) Export Credit Guarantee Corporation
    (c) Director General of Foreign Trade
    (d) Reserve Bank of India
  56. Which of the following organization issues the rules of global trade?
    (a) World bank
    (b) International monetary fund
    (c) World Trade Organization
    (d) International Finance Corporation
  57. The headquarters of IMF and World Bank are located at:
    (a) Geneva and Montreal
    (b) Geneva and Vienna
    (c) New York and Geneva
    (d) Washington DC
  58. Which of the following is a retail banking product?
    (a) Home loans
    (b) Working capital finance
    (c) Corporate term loans
    (d) Infrastructure finance
  59. What is the full form of ‘NSE”?
    (a) New Service Exchange
    (b) New stock evaluation
    (c) National stock exchange
    (d) National service emporium
  60. The abbreviation ‘EMV” stands for:
    (a) European Marginal visit
    (b) Expected Monetary Value
    (c) Essential Monthly Value
    (d) Europay, Master Card and Visa
  61. Which of the following statement related to perfect competition is not correct?
    (a) The price elasticity of demand is infinity
    (b) AR is equal to MR
    (c) Buyers have perfect knowledge of market
    (d) Firms earn supernormal profit in the long run
  62. According to the law of diminishing marginal utility:
    (a) Total utility is at a maximum with the first unit
    (b) Increasing units of consumption increase the marginal utility
    (c) Total utility will rise at a falling rate as more units are consumed
    (d) Marginal product will fall as more units consumed
  63. Tha law equi-marginal utility is otherwise called is:
    (a) Law of substitution
    (b) Law of diminishing MU
    (c) Law of negative returns
    (d) None of these
  64. Under perfect competition a firm even after incurring loss continues production till:
    (a) Price= AC
    (b) Price = AFC
    (c) Price = AVC
    (d) Prive = IC
  65. Which of the following is not a feature of Oligopoly?
    (a) Small number of seller
    (b) Absence of mutual dependence of firms
    (c) Possibility of firm forming cartel
    (d) All of the above
  66. Under kinked demand curve model of Oligopoly:
    (a) Price once fixed is rigid
    (b) Elasticity of the upper and lower portions of demands curve differs
    (c) Gap between the MR curve depends on difference in elasticity of the upper lower portions
    (d) All of the above
  67. If the price of goods increases, then:
    (a) Demand for complementary goods will increase
    (b) Demand for substitute goods will increase
    (c) Demand for the good will decrease
    (d) Both ii and iii
  68. An individual demand curve slopes downward to the right because of the :
    (a) Working of the law of diminishing marginal utility
    (b) Substitution effect of decrease in price
    (c) Income effect of fall in Price
    (d) All of the above
  69. Which of the following is a characteristic of price monopoly?
    (a) Low price elasticity of demand
    (b) Low barriers of entry
    (c) Close substitute products
    (d) Perfect information
  70. In pure monopoly, What is the relation between the price and the marginal revenue?
    (a) Price Is greater than the marginal revenue
    (b) Price is less than the marginal revenue
    (c) There is no relation
    (d) They are equal
  71. As per the law of equi-marginal utility in equilibrium:
    (a) MUx/Px=MUy/Py=MUm
    (b) MUx/Px>MUm
    (c) MUx/Px<MUm
    (d) Both ii and iii
  72. If marginal utility is zero:
    (a) Total utility is maximized
    (b) An additional unit of consumption will decrease total utility
    (c) An additional unit of consumption will increase total utility
    (d) Both I and II
  73. Which of the following is added to national income while calculating personal income?
    (a) Transfer payments to individuals
    (b) Social security contributions
    (c) Corporate taxes
    (d) Undistributed profits
  74. Which statement about GDP is correct?
    (a) GNP- (X-M) = GDP
    (b) Nominal GDP is the value of GDP at the costant prices
    (c) GDP = Wage+Prifit+Interest
    (d) Both I and II
  75. The balance of trade refers to:
    (a) Income receipts minus income payments on investment
    (b) The balance of unilateral transfers
    (c) Merchandise exports plus service exports minus the sum of merchandise and service imports
    (d) Merchandise exports minus merchandise imports
  76. Which of the following statement is true?
    (a) New issue market deals with new securities
    (b) New issue market deals existing securities
    (c) New issue market deals with listed securities
    (d) New issue market deals with only debt securities
  77. Capital market is not regulated by:
    (a) Securities and Exchange Board of India Act
    (b) Reserve Bank of India Act
    (c) Depositors Act
    (d) Companies Act
  78. When a right to purchase securities is given, it is known as:
    (a) Call option
    (b) Put option
    (c) Call and put option
    (d) All of the above
  79. The method used in the floatation of securities in New Issue Market is Called:
    (a) Public issue
    (b) Offer for sale
    (c) Placement
    (d) All of the above
  80. IDR stands for:
    (a) Indian Depository Receipt
    (b) Initial deposit Receipt
    (c) Investment Depository Receipt
    (d) None of these
  81. Which one is not a money market instrument?
    (a) Treasury Bill
    (b) Bill of Exchange
    (c) Commercial Paper
    (d) Bond
  82. Treasury Bill period is generally:
    (a) 91 days
    (b) 182 days
    (c) 364 days
    (d) All of the above
  83. The minimum maturity period for which the commercial paper issued is:
    (a) 6 Days
    (b) 7 Days
    (c) 8 Days
    (d) 10 Days
  84. Which is not fixed income security?
    (a) Bond
    (b) Debenture
    (c) Deep Discount Bond
    (d) None of these
  85. Bond’s yield depends on:
    (a) Par Value
    (b) Coupon Rate
    (c) Maturity
    (d) All of the above
  86. Short terms fund are dealt in:
    (a) Capital market
    (b) Money market
    (c) Commodity market
    (d) None of these
  87. The certificate of Deposit shall be issued for a minimum maturity period of:
    (a) 6 Days
    (b) 7 Days
    (c) 8 Days
    (d) 15 Days
  88. Certificate of Deposit can be issued for a maximum maturity period of :
    (a) 45 Days
    (b) 60 Days
    (c) 12 Months
    (d) 90 Days
  89. Debentures are traded in:
    (a) Stock exchange
    (b) Money market
    (c) Commodity Exchange
    (d) All of the abve
  90. A debentures does not have:
    (a) Fixed interest rate
    (b) Maturity Period
    (c) Voting Right
    (d) Priority in liquidation
  91. Which of the following are techniques, tools or methods of analysis and interpretation of financial statements?
    (a) Ratio analysis
    (b) Average analysis
    (c) Trend analysis
    (d) All of the above
  92. A financial statement that shows both rupees and percentages in the report is referred to as:
    (a) A Balance sheet
    (b) A common size statements
    (c) A proportional financial statements
    (d) A relative statement of Equity
  93. Which one of the following statements is not true?
    (a) Financial statements are important source of information to shareholders and stakeholders.
    (b) Return on Equity and Earning per share are one and the same thing.
    (c) In calculating acid is a measure of Long-Term solvency of a firm
    (d) Debt-Equity Ratio is a measure of Long-Term solvency of a firm
  94. Du pont Analysis relates to:
    (a) Analysis of current assets
    (b) Analysis of profit
    (c) Capital budgeting
    (d) Analysis of fixed assets
  95. Inventory turnover measures the relationship of inventory with:
    (a) Average sales
    (b) Cost of goods sold
    (c) Total Purchase
    (d) Total assets
  96. Which of the following does not help to increase Current Ratio?
    (a) Issue of Debentures to buy stock
    (b) Issue of Debentures to pay creditors
    (c) Sale of investment to pay creditors
    (d) Availing bank overdraft to buy machine
  97. Which of the following liabilities are taken into account for calculating Acid Test Ratio?
    (a) Trade creditors
    (b) Bills payable
    (c) Outstanding expenses
    (d) Bank overdraft
    (e) Redeemable Debentures
    (a) a, b, c, d and e
    (b) a, b, c, and d
    (c) a, b and c
    (d) a and b
  98. In a statement of cash flows (Indirect method), a decrease in inventory should be reported as:
    (a) A deduction from net income in determining cash flows from operating activities
    (b) An addition to net income in determining cash flows from operating activities
    (c) An increase in investing activity
    (d) Not reported
  99. ‘Cash from operations’ or Cash flow form operating activities is calculated as:
    (a) Net profit + Increase in current assets
    (b) Net profit+ Decrease in current Liabilities
    (c) Operating Profit+/-Adjustment in current assets and current liabilities
    (d) Net profit after tax
  100. According to AS-3 (Revised) purchase of fixed assets is treated as:
    (a) Operating activity
    (b) Managing activity
    (c) Financing activity
    (d) Investing activity
  101. Which of the following is an example of non-cash expenses?
    (a) Depreciation
    (b) Wages and salaries
    (c) Rent of the premises
    (d) Telephone expenses
  102. IF:
    Net profit (after tax) Rs. 70,000.
    Fixed interest charges on Debentures Rs. 10,000
    Income tax paid Rs. 70,000
    Then, Interest Coverage Ratio will be:
    (a) 7 Times
    (b) 8 Times
    (c) 14 Times
    (d) 15 Times
    Read the following illustration carefully and answer questions from 103 and 104:
    Below is the information available relating to a company:

    01.04.2016  31.03.2017
    Investment  1,02,000  84,000
    Machinery (at cost)  1,20,000 1,26,000
    Provision for Depreciation  30,000  32,000

    (i) During the year, the company had sold 40% of its investments held by it begning of the year at a profit of Rs. 25,000.
    (ii) During the year, machine costing Rs. 12,000(accumulated depreciation Rs. 7,200) was sold for Rs. 6,000.

  103. What is the value of machinery purchased during the year?
    (a) Rs. 1,26,000
    (b) Rs. 1,39,200
    (c) Rs. 18,000
    (d) Rs. 6,000
  104. What is the cash flow from investing activites?
    (a) Rs. 65,800
    (b) Rs. 43,000
    (c) Rs. 31,000
    (d) Rs. 30,000
  105. Given : If Gross Profit Ratio is 25%, Net Profit Ratio is 12% and sales is Rs. 21,600. What is the value of cost of the goods sold?
    (a) Rs. 19,008
    (b) Rs. 17,200
    (c) Rs. 18,892
    (d) Rs. 16,200
  106. Errors in personal and real Accounts affect:
    (a) Trading account
    (b) Profit and loss account
    (c) Profit and loss Appropriation Account
    (d) Balance sheet
  107. Which one of the following statements is false?
    (a) Closing stock given in trial balance is shown in profit and loss account
    (b) Depreciation affects the value of the asset
    (c) Interest on drawings is an income for business
    (d) A net profit is a liability to the concern
  108. Sunidhi’s trial balance contains the following information:
    (i) Discount received Rs. 1,200.
    (ii) Provision for discount on creditors Rs. 1,800 create a provision for discount on creditors at Rs. 1,600.
    The account to be credited to profit &loss A/C is:
    (a) Rs. 1,000
    (b) Rs. 1,400
    (c) Rs. 200
    (d) Rs. 2,200
  109. The formula of calculating annual depreciation by fixed installment method is:
    (a) Value of the Asset + Life of the asset / Residual value
    (b) Cost of the Asset – Residual value / Estimated Life of the Asset(in years)
    (c) Cost of the Asset + Residual vlue / Estimated life of the Asset (in years)
    (d) Cost of the Asset / Estimated life of the Asset (in year)
  110. The machine was purchased for Rs. 4,000 it was estimated that it will work for three years and at the end of its life its residual value will be Rs. 32. Find out the rate of depreciation, If depreciation is calculated at diminishing balance method.
    (a) 70% per annum
    (b) 80 % per annum
    (c) 75 % per annum
    (d) 60% per annum
  111. Capital redemption reserve account can be utilized for:
    (a) Writing off losses
    (b) Writing off miscellaneous expenditure
    (c) Payment of dividnd
    (d) Issue of bonus shares
  112. Balance of forfeited share account after re-issue of forfeited shares is transferred to:
    (a) Profit and Loss Appropriation Account
    (b) Capital Reserve Account
    (c) General Reserve Account
    (d) Secret Reserve Account
  113. Debentures can be redeened:
    (a) Out of profits
    (b) Out of capital
    (c) Converting into shares
    (d) All of these
  114. X company Ltd. purchased assets worth Rs. 28,80,000. The company paid the purchase consideration by issuing debentures of Rs. 100 each at 4% discount the number of debentures issued to vendor of assets are:
    (a) 30,000
    (b) 28,800
    (c) 32,000
    (d) 32,800
  115. Unless otherwise stated, a preference share is always presumed to be:
    (i) Cumulative, participating and non-convertible
    (ii) Non – cumulative and non – participating
    (iii) Cumulative, non- participating and non- convertible
    (iv) Non-cumulative participating and non-convertible
  116. ‘A’ and ‘B’ are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3:2 ‘C’ is admitted with 1/3 share in the profit. What will be the new profit sharing ratio?
    (a) 3:2:3
    (b) 6:4:3
    (c) 6:4:5
    (d) 3:2:5
  117. Joint life policy reserve account is transferred to:
    (a) All the partners
    (b) Continuing partners
    (c) Retiring partners
    (d) None of these
  118. ‘X’, ‘Y’, ‘Z’ are partners sharing profits and losses in the raitio of 1/5, 1/3 and 7/15 respectively. ‘Z’ retires and his share was taken up by ‘X’ and ‘Y’ in the ratio of 3:2 What will be the new ratio?
    (a) 11:12
    (b) 12:13
    (c) 13:14
    (d) 10:12
  119. An amount of Rs 1,000 is debited twice in the pass book. When overdraft as per the cash book is the starting point, then:
    (a) Rs.1,000 will be deducted
    (b) Rs.1,000 will be added
    (c) Rs.2,000 will be deducted
    (d) Rs.2,000 will be added
  120. Bank balance as per cash book is Rs. 18,500 , Rs. 4,500 is entered in the cash book as paid into bank but not credited by the bank. The bank pass book balabce is:
    (a) Rs. 22,500
    (b) Rs. 23,000
    (c) Rs. 14,000
    (d) Rs. 18,500
  121. To create ‘Manufacturing Hub’, the programme is :
    (a) Start up India
    (b) Stand up India
    (c) Skill India
    (d) Make in India
  122. The full form of GIP is:
    (a) Gross industrial policy
    (b) Global investment policy
    (c) Green Industrial policy
    (d) Gross Insurance policy
  123. U.P.’s Khadi & Village Industrial board has signed a pact to facilities online selling with:
    (a) Flipkart
    (b) Amazon India
    (c) Ebay
    (d) Snapdeal
  124. An Individual has to pay income tax during the year 2017-18 and 2018-19,when his/her income exeeds:
    (a) Rs. 3,50,000
    (b) Rs. 3,00,000
    (c) Rs. 2,00,000
    (d) Rs. 2,50,000
  125. The chairman of GST council is :
    (a) Arvind Pangadia
    (b) Rajeev kumar
    (c) Arun jaitley
    (d) Narendra Modi
  126. NSE-50 is now renamed as:
    (a) S&P PCNX Nifty
    (b) DOLLEX
    (c) BSE SENSEX
    (d) BSE 200
  127. The chairman of 15the finance commission is :
    (a) Anoop singh
    (b) Arvind Mehta
    (c) N.K. Singh
    (d) Shaktikanta Das
  128. Which is the following rate is not controlled by Reserve Bank of India?
    (a) Cash Reserve Ratio
    (b) Cess
    (c) Repo Rate
    (d) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
  129. Balance of Trade includes:
    (a) Goods
    (b) Services
    (c) Transfer payments
    (d) a and b both
  130. A cube of side 5 cm is painted on all its faces, if it is sliced into a1 cubic centimeter cubes, how many s 1cubic centimeter cubes will have exactly one of their faces Painted?
    (a) 27
    (b) 42
    (c) 54
    (d) 142
  131. If the right of a cylinder becomes ¼ of the original height and the radius is doubled, then which of the following will be true?
    (a) Volume of the cylinder will be doubled.
    (b) Volume of the cylinder will remain unchanged.
    (c) Volume of the cylinder will be halved.
    (d) Volume of the cylinder will be ¼ of the following original volume.
  132. The dimensions of a godown are 40 m, 25m and 10m. If it is filled with cuboidal boxes each of dimension 2 m x 1m, then the number of boxes will be:
    (a) 1800
    (b) 2000
    (c) 4000
    (d) 8000
  133. The ratio of two cylinders is 1:2 and heights are in the ratio 2:3. The ratio of their volumes is:
    (a) 1:6
    (b) 1:9
    (c) 1:3
    (d) 2:9
  134. Ramesh has three containers.
    (a) Cylinder container a having radius r and height h
    (b) Cylinder container B having radius 2r and height h/2 and
    (c) Cuboidal container C haiving radius r x r x h
    The arrangement of the containers in the increasing order of their volumes is
    (a) a, b, c
    (b) b,c, a
    (c) c, a, b
    (d) Cannot be arranged
  135. The present age of father is four times the age of his son. After 10 years, age of father will become.Three times the age of his son. Find the present age of father.
    (a) 80
    (b) 60
    (c) 96
    (d) 74
  136. If 5x/3 -4=2x/5, then the numerical value of 2x-7 is
    (a) 19/13
    (b) – 13/19
    (c) 0
    (d) 13/19
  137. Arpita’s present age is thrice of Shilpa. If Shilpa’s age three years ago was x years then Arpita’s present age is:
    (a) 3(x-3)
    (b) 3x-x
    (c) 3x-9
    (d) 3(x-3)
  138. A sum is taken for two years at 16% p.a. If interest is compounded after every three months, the number of times for which interest is charged in 2 years is:
    (a) 8
    (b) 4
    (c) 6
    (d) 9
  139. Avinash bought an electric iron for Rs. 900and sold it at a gain of 10%. He sold another electric iron at 5% loss which was bought Rs. 1,200. On the transaction he has a:
    (a) Profit of Rs. 75
    (b) Loss of Rs. 75
    (c) Profit of Rs. 30
    (d) Loss of Rs. 30
  140. Radhika bought a car for Rs. 2,50,000. Next year its price decreased by 10% and further next year it decreased by 12% In the two years overall decrease per cent in the price of the car is:
    (a) 3.2%
    (b) 22%
    (c) 20.8%
    (d) 8%
  141. 6 men and 10 boys can complete a work in 4days or 4 men and 10 boys can complete that work in 5 days , then find in how many days 2 men and 5 boys can complete that work?
    (a) 8
    (b) 10
    (c) 12
    (d) 11
  142. The value of x that satisfies the equation x+7-8x/3 =17/6-5x/8 is∶
    (a) 3
    (b) -3
    (c) 4
    (d) -4
  143. Length of a rectangle is 5cm more than its breadth. If the area of rectangle is 50cm2 than find the length of rectangle.
    (a) 10cm
    (b) 11cm
    (c) 12 cm
    (d) 12.5 cm
  144. A rectangular paper of length 100cm and which width 44cm is revolved along its width and a cylinder is formed. Find the volume of cylinder{x=.22/7}:
    (a) 3080 cm3
    (b) 4400cm3
    (c) 12320cm3
    (d) 15400cm3
  145. ISP stands for:
    (a) International shopping provider
    (b) Internet shopping provider
    (c) Internet service provider
    (d) International service processing
  146. What is Linux ?
    (a) Input Device
    (b) Storage device
    (c) Operating system
    (d) Output device
  147. Among the following which is not an operating system?
    (a) DOS
    (b) UNIX
    (c) LetEx
    (d) Ubuntu
  148. Which of the following is correct sequence of smallest to largest unit of storage size?
    (a) Petabyte, Kilobyte, Megabyte, Gigabyte, Terabyte
    (b) Kilobyte, Megabyte, Terabyte, Petabyte , Gigabyte
    (c) Megabyte, Terabyte , Gigabyte, Kilobyte, Petabyte
    (d) Kilobyte, Megabyte, Gigabyte, Terabyte, Petabyte
  149. In MS-Excel, “=SUM(B1:B10)” is an example of:
    (a) Function
    (b) Formula
    (c) Cell address
    (d) None of these
  150. The standard protocol of the Internet is:
    (a) TCP/IP
    (b Java
    (c) HTML
    (d) WWW

    Answer Key

    1 (a) 2 (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (c) 6 (a) 7 (a) 8 (d) 9 (d) 10 (d) 11 (a) 12 (b) 13 (b) 14 (d) 15 (b) 16 (a) 17 (a) 18 (a) 19 (c) 20 (b) 21 (c) 22 (c) 23 (a) 24 (b) 25 (d) 26 (a) 27 (c) 28 (c) 29 (a) 30 (c) 31 (c) 32 (b) 33 (a) 34 (c) 35 (c) 36 (d) 37 (a) 38 (d) 39 (a) 40 (c) 41 (a) 42 (a) 43 (d) 44 (d) 45 (a) 46 (c) 47 (b) 48 (c) 49 (d) 50 (b) 51 (c) 52 (a) 53 (c) 54 (d) 55 (b) 56 (c) 57 (d) 58 (a) 59 (c) 60 (d) 61 (d) 62 (c) 63 (a) 64 (c) 65 (b) 66 (d) 67 (d) 68 (d) 69 (b) 70 (a) 71 (a) 72 (d) 73 (a) 74 (a) 75 (d) 76 (a) 77 (b) 78 (a) 79 (d) 80 (a) 81 (d) 82 (d) 83 (b) 84 (d) 85 (d) 86 (b) 87 (b) 88 (c) 89 (a) 90 (c) 91 (d) 92 (b) 93 (b) 94 (b) 95 (b) 96 (d) 97 (c) 98 (b) 99 (c) 100 (d)101 (a) 102 (d) 103 (c) 104 (c) 105 (d) 106 (d) 107 (a) 108 (a) 109 (b) 110 (b) 111 (d) 112 (b) 113 (d) 114 (a) 115 (c) 116 (c) 117 (a) 118 (b) 119 (b) 120 (c)121 (d) 122 (c) 123 (b) 124 (d) 125 (c) 126 (a) 127 (a) 128 (b) 129 (d) 130 (c) 131 (b) 132 (c) 133 (a) 134 (c) 135 (a) 136 (b) 137 (d) 138 (a) 139 (c) 140 (c) 141 (b)142 (c) 143 (a) 144 (d) 145 (c) 146 (c) 147 (c) 148 (d) 149 (b) 150 (a)