- The amount of cash or cash equivalents which the company receives or gives out by the way of payments to creditors is known as_________.
(a) Turnover
(b) Sales
(c) Fund flow
(d) Cash flow - Which of the following is not a finance function?
(a) Investment decision
(b) Financing decision
(c) Dividend decision
(d) Sales forecasting - What does the term YTM stand for?
(a) Yield – to – Maximization
(b) Year – to – Maturity
(c) Yield – to – Minimization
(d) Yield – to – Maturity - The proportion of earning paid out as dividends to shareholders, typically expressed as a percentage of the company’s earnings is called_________.
(a) Payout ratio
(b) Outgoing ratio
(c) Disbursement ratio
(d) Income ratio - Which of the following terms best defines the process of evaluating investments and huge expenses in order to obtain the best returns on investment?
(a) Investment budgeting
(b) Assets budgeting
(c) Capital budgeting
(d) Wealth budgeting - Which of the following is a type of debt instrument unsecured by collateral?
(a) Mortgage
(b) Angel fund
(c) Debenture
(d) Hedge fund - Which of the following is not a Leverage ratio?
(a) Debt ratio
(b) Debt equity ratio
(c) Capital employed to net worth ratio
(d) Quick ratio - The equity available to common shareholders divided by the number of outstanding shares is called_______.
(a) Present value of equity per share
(b) Future value of equity per share
(c) Past value of equity per share
(d) Book value of equity per share - Funds that have been set aside for special purpose or to cover contingencies are called_____.
(a) Reserves
(b) Capital
(c) Assets
(d) Liabilities - Which of the following term best defines the value of any tangible property and property rights owned by a company less any reserve set aside for depreciation?
(a) Capital
(b) Assets
(c) Net worth
(d) Total value - Which term best defines a product offered by banks and credit unions that offers an interest rate premium in exchange for the customer agreeing to leave a lump-sum deposit untouched for a predetermined period?
(a) Bond
(b) Letter of credit
(c) Certificate of deposit
(d) Mutual fund - Which of the following increases after the repurchase of the company’s share from the market?
(a) Profitability of the company
(b) Earning per share of the company
(c) Market share of the company
(d) Company’s capital reserve - Which of the following is NOT proposed by the Modigliani and Miller (MM) Approcah of capital structure?
(a) Valuation of a firm is irrelevant to the capital structure of a company.
(b) The market value of a firm is affected by its operating income, a part form the risk involved in the investment.
(c) In perfect capital markets there are no taxes and transaction costs.
(d) a judicious mix of debt and equity affects the value of a firm. - An organization that acts on behalf of another persons to manage the assets is called a______.
(a) Partner
(b) Fiduciary
(c) Limited liability partner
(d) Proprietor - What does SWM in financial management stands for?
(a) Shareholder’s wealth Maximization
(b) Stockiest wealth Maximization
(c) Shareholders’ wealth Moderation
(d) Shareholders wealth Metallisation - ______ States that the potential return rises with an increase in risk: using this principle, individuals associate low levels of uncertainty with low potential returns, and high levels of uncertainty or risk with high potential returns.
(a) Profit return trade off
(b) Risk return trade off
(c) Profit maximization trade off
(d) Wealth maximization trade off - What is the full form of EBITDA?
(a) Earnings Before Interest , Tax Depreciation and Amortisation
(b) Earnings Before Income Tax, Depreciation and Amortisation
(c) Earnings Before Interest, Tax, Devaluation and Amortisation
(d) Earnings Before Interest , Tax Discount and Amortisation - Which of the following formulas best describes PE ratio?
(a) Profit per share / Market value per share
(b) Dividend per share / Earning per share
(C) Market value per share / Earning per share
(d) Market value per share / Dividend per share - What is the name of an accounting technique used to periodically lower the book value of a loan or intangible asset over a set period of time?
(a) Depreciation
(b) Written down value
(C) Devaluation
(d) Amortisation - If the dividends are to be paid within one year, then this liability is classified as a/an________.
(a) Non –Current liability
(b) Contingent liability
(C) Accrued expense
(d) Current liability - A systematic review of the production, purchasing, and product design processes to reduce overall product costs is best described by which of the following terms?
(a) Worth analysis
(b) Significance analysis
(C) Value analysis
(d) Rate analysis - Which of the following information is not obtained from the comparative income statement?
(a) Gross profit
(b) Operating profit
(c) Net profit
(d) Future profit - Which of the following is NOT a tool/technique of financial statements analysis?
(a) Common size statement
(b) Trend ratios or trend analysis
(c) Comprehensive analysis
(d) Statement of changes in working capital - __deals with detailed sources and application of funds of the business concern for a specific period.
(a) Ratio analysis
(b) Cost volume profit analysis
(c) Cash flow analysis
(d) Fund flow analysis - Which of the following statements/ analysis deal with the comparison of different items of the profit and loss account and the balance sheet of two or more periods?
(a) Comparative statement
(b) Common size statement
(c) Trend ratios or trend analysis
(d) Average analysis - What is the technique used for developing a meaningful relationship between individual items(or group of items) in the balance sheet or profit and loss account?
(a) Ratio analysis
(b) Cost volume profit analysis
(c) Cash flow analysis
(d) Fund flow analysis - Which of the following is not the main liquidity ratio for a business?
(a) Quick ratio
(b) Current ratio
(c) Net working capital
(d) Fixed charge coverage ratio - ________ is the change in price of a share for a change in the return on the market as a whole.
(a) Systematic risk
(b) Unsystematic risk
(c) Gamma
(d) Alpha - Which of the following is one of the main operating efficiency ratios?
(a) Fixed charge coverage ratio
(b) Inventory turnover
(c) Debt to EBITDA
(d) Interest coverage - Which is the following analysis is an expression of the amount of financial statements items as percentages of the statement total?
(a) Horizontal analysis
(b) Trend analysis
(c) Vertical analysis
(d) Ratio analysis - Select the technique used to decompose the different drivers of return on equity (ROE), into three major factors.
(a) Liquidity analysis
(b) Profitability analysis
(c) DuPont analysis
(d) Comparative analysis - Net operating profit after tax (NOPAT) is equal to__________.
(a) PAT plus after tax interest
(b) PBIT minus interest
(c) GP minus operating expenses minus depreciation
(d) Sales minus the cost of goods sold - Which of the following transactions does not affect the working capital in fund flow analysis?
(a) Transaction involving one aspect of current asset and other of capital
(b) Transaction involving one aspect of current liability and other of fixed liability
(c) Transaction involving one aspect of fixed and other of fixed liability
(d) Transaction involving one aspect of current liability and other of fixed asset - The formula for interest coverage ratio is_______.
(a) PAT / Interest revenue
(b) EBIT / Interest expense
(c) EBT / Interest expense
(d) EBTD / Interest revenue - Which of the following is NOT an application of the technique of marginal costing?
(a) Forecasting of future sales, revenue and profit
(b) Fixation of selling price
(c) Maintaining a desired level of profit
(d) Accepting of price than the total cost - Which of the following ratio equals the market value of a company divided by its book value?
(a) Leverage ratio
(b) Capital and asset ratio
(c) Actual market value ratio
(d) Market to book financial ratio - Which of the following financial ratio is used to measure the proportion of owner’s investment used to finance the assets of the company and for indicating the proportion of owner’s funds to total funds invested in the business?
(a) Leverage ratio
(b) Equity ratio
(c) Valuation ratio
(d) Quick asset ratio - The quantity of a well- defined good or service that people are willing and able to purchase during a particular period is called________.
(a) Demand
(b) Consumption
(c) Consumerisation
(d) Market response - A graph showing the relationship between the price of a certain item and what consumers are willing to buy at that price is called_____.
(a) Supply curve
(b) Price curve
(c) Demand curve
(d) Resource curve - The cost which varies with output is called_______.
(a) Variable cost
(b) Fixed cost
(c) Intangible cost
(d) Inconsistent cost - Rental, Insurance, depreciation, set-up costs come under which of the following categories?
(a) Variable cost
(b) Fixed cost
(c) Intangible cost
(d) Inconsistent cost - The cost incurred for producing one extra unit of output is called_______.
(a) Bordering cost
(b) Borderline cost
(c) Fringe cost
(d) Marginal cost - Which of the following terms explains the situation where there are many sellers but are selling heterogeneous (dissimilar) goods, as opposed to the perfect competitive market scenario?
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Defective competition
(c) Imperfect competition
(d) Deficient competition - Which of the following terms means the measure of the change in the quantity demanded or purchase of a product in relation to its price change?
(a) Price elasticity of demand
(b) Price inelasticity of demand
(c) Price bounciness of demand
(d) Cost elasticity of demand - An asset that can be converted into cash in a short time, with little or no loss in value is called a/an________.
(a) Operating asset
(b) Non- operating asset
(c) Intangible asset
(d) Liquid asset - Which term describe a market structure where competition is at its greatest possible level?
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Defective competition
(c) Imperfect competition
(d) Deficient competition - Marginal costs are derived exclusively from_______.
(a) Marginal cost
(b) Variable cost
(c) Differential cost
(d) Peripheral cost - Which of the following terms best defines an examination of the additional benefits of activity when compared with the additional cost of that activity?
(a) Peripheral analysis
(b) Marginal analysis
(c) Fringe analysis
(d) Bordering analysis - A situation in which the demand curve is a horizontal line instead of the usual downward-sloping demand curve is called_____.
(a) Perfectly inelastic
(b) Perfectly elastic
(c) Inelastic
(d) Unity elastic - Which of the following is an accounting practice in which , instead of having a huge lump-sum expense in the year that the purchase is made, a fraction of the cost is charged to expenses for each year of the asset’s lifetime?
(a) Downgrading expense accounting method
(b) Decrease expense accounting method
(c) Reduction expense accounting method
(d) Depreciation expense accounting method - Which of the following terms best defines the price of a commodity at which the quantity that buyers wish to buy equals the quantity that sellers wish to sell?
(a) Equilibrium price
(b) Balance price
(c) Two part price
(d) Equipoise price - ________are goods for which people’s preference for buying them increases as a direct function of their price, since greater price confers greater status; as the price gets higher , demand rises.
(a) White goods
(b) Durable goods
(c) Veblen goods
(d) Giffen goods - Which of the following terms best defines a situation when demand for a factor of production or intermediate goods occurs as a result of the demand for another intermediate or final good?
(a) Derived demand
(b) Long term demand
(c) Autonomous demand
(d) Short run demand - Which of the following terms explains the situation in which as a person consumes an item or a product the satisfaction or utility that they from the product wanes as they consume more and more of that product?
(a) Diminishing bordering utility
(b) Shrinking marginal utility
(c) Diminishing marginal utility
(d) Diminishing marginal value - The Organization of petroleum- Exporting Countries(OPEC) is the best known example of_____.
(a) Consortium
(b) Monopoly
(c) Cartel
(d) Conglomerate - The marketing strategy of identifying variance in demand and aligning pricing strategies to maximizing profits is called_______.
(a) Profit management
(b) Income management
(c) Yield management
(d) Revenue management - The sum total of all external and internal factors that can, directly and indirectly, influence a business is called_____.
(a) Business environment
(b) Business background
(c) Business climate
(d) Business macro climate - ‘More than half of India’s Population is under 25 years old’ , is an example of which the following business environments ?
(a) Demographic environments
(b) Socio-cultural environments
(c) Economic environment
(d) Political environment - A set of beliefs, costoms practices and behavior that exists within a population is called____.
(a) Demographic environment
(b) Socio-cultural environment
(c) Economic environment
(d) Political environment - Which of the following are the external factors studied in the SWOT analysis?
(a) Threats and Weakness
(b) Opportunities and threats
(c) Opportunities and strengths
(d) Threats and opportunities - Government actions or changes in the business laws, which may directly or indirectly affect the operations of a company or business is called________.
(a) Demographic environment
(b) Socio cultural environment
(c) Economic environment
(d) Political legal environment - Which of the following is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations?
(a) Global Trade Organization
(b) World Trade Organization
(c) World wide Trade Organization
(d) World Business Organization - Which of the following terms describes a process of opening up of any country’s economic system and its integration among the other economies of the world?
(a) Globalization
(b) Liberalization
(c) Integration
(d) Networking - The individual policy resolution of 1956 was based on which of the models?
(a) Dixit Model
(b) Kaushik Model
(c) Mahalanobis Model
(d) Bhalla Model - The disinvestment process of PSUs in India began in the year:
(a) 1992-93
(b) 1973-74
(c) 1966-67
(d) 1991-92 - Which of the following PSUs has not been disinvestment by the government of India?
(a) Bharat Aluminium Company Ltd.
(b) CMC Ltd.
(c) Hindustan Zinc Ltd.
(d) Bharat Electronic Ltd. - What is the full form of AISAM, Which has approved 100% sale of the stake of the Government of India in Air India?
(a) Air India Specific Avenue Mechanism
(b) Air India Special Alternative Mechanism
(c) Air India Specific Alternative Mechanism
(d) Air India Specific Alternative Machinery - The Department of Investment and public Asset Management (DIPAM) functions under which Ministry of the Government of India?
(a) Ministry of Industry and Commerce
(b) Ministry of External Affairs
(c) Ministry of Finance
(d) Ministry of Consumer Affairs - Who was the first disinvestment minister of India?
(a) Arun Shourie
(b) Piyush Goyal
(c) P. Chidambaram
(d) Pranab Mukherjee - What is the full form of GATT, which was later replaced by the World Trade Organization(WTO)?
(a) Global Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
(b) General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
(c) Generic Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
(d) General Arrangement on Tariffs and Trade - How many nations have signed the WTO agreement till 29 July 2016?
(a) 166
(b) 165
(c) 164
(d) 163 - Which of the following agreements plays a critical role in facilitating trade in knowledge and creativity, in resolving trade dispute over intellectual property, and in assuring WTO members the latitude to achieve their domestic objectives?
(a) Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement
(b) Asia – Pacific Economic Cooperation
(c) Free Trade Agreement
(d) TRIPS Agreement - When did India become a WTO member?
(a) 1 January 1995
(b) 26 January 1999
(c) 1 February 1996
(d) 15 March 1997 - When did India face a huge BoP (balance-of-payments ) crisis, where foreign currency reserve fell down badly and inflation soared rocket high, and then India felt urge of globalization?
(a) 1990
(b) 1991
(c) 1992
(d) 1993 - As per the industrial policy resolution of 1956, how many industries are included under ‘Schedule A’?
(a) 15
(b) 16
(c) 17
(d) 18 - Who among the following developed the ‘Hierarchy of Needs’ model?
(a) Sarah Zeldman
(b) Chris Farrell
(c) Neil Patel
(d) Abraham Maslow - What is term used for a short-sighted and inward- looking approach to marketing that focuses on the needs of the company, instead of defining the company and its products in terms of the customer’s needs and wants?
(a) Marketing bigotry
(b) Marketing myopia
(c) Marketing intolerance
(d) Marketing bias - As per Philip Kotler, Which of the following eras does NOT exist in the history of marketing?
(a) Marketing era
(b) Sales era
(c) Production era
(d) Distribution era - _______ is marketing strategy designed to foster customer loyalty, interaction an long-term engagement. It is designed to develop strong connections with customers by providing them with information directly suited to their needs and interests and by promoting open communication.
(a) Camaraderie marketing
(b) Relationship marketing
(c) Bond marketing
(d) Attachment marketing - ______Characterizes an industry in which many firms offer products or services that are similer, but not perfect substitutes.
(a) Monopoly competition
(b) Oligopoly competition
(c) Pure competition
(d) Monopolistic competition - Which of the following is the first step in the consumer buying process?
(a) Problem recognition
(b) Information search
(c) Evaluation of alternatives
(d) Purchase decision - Distribution of free samples of a product is a method of which of the following marketing communication strategies?
(a) Personal selling
(b) Direct marketing
(c) Sales promotion
(d) Publicity - The products which have to necessarily be used with an accompanying product are called____.
(a) By- Products
(b) Captive products
(c) Supplementary products
(d) Auxiliary products - Who among the following coined the term ‘ marketing mix’?
(a) Pat Flynn
(b) Chris Farrell
(c) Neil H Borden
(d) Yanik Silver - The extended 7 ps of the marketing mix are________.
(a) People, process and price
(b) Product, process and physical evidence
(c) People, price and physical evidence
(d) People, process and physical evidence - The marketing strategy ‘ Buy One, Get One’ comes under which of the following terms?
(a) Direct marketing
(b) Advertising
(c) Publicity
(d) Sales promotion - The term STP in marketing stands for___.
(a) Segmenting, Targeting and positioning
(b) Selecting, Targeting and positioning
(c) Segmenting, Targeting and putting
(d) Socializing, Targeting and positioning - Which of the following refers to tailoring products and marketing programs to the needs and preferences of individual customers?
(a) Nice-Marketing
(b) Individual Marketing
(c) Segment Marketing
(d) Local Marketing - A price strategy in which prices are kept very low to eliminate the competition from the market is called_____.
(a) Value base pricing
(b) Penetrating pricing
(c) Skimming pricing
(d) Predatory pricing - Which of the following is not a characteristic of a service as a product?
(a) Inseparability
(b) Heterogeneity
(c) Perishability
(d) Tangibility - The way that customers think about, or the way that a company wants customers to think about, a product in relation to similar products or to competitors’ products is one of the definitions of which of the following terms in marketing?
(a) Ideation
(b) Landscaping
(c) Positioning
(d) Reshaping - The practice of adjusting an item’s sale based on the location of the buyer is called______.
(a) Geographical pricing
(b) Discriminatory pricing
(c) Value base pricing
(d) Dynamic pricing - What is the name of the pricing strategy in which a high introductory price is charged for an innovative product and later on the price is reduced when more markets enter the market with types of products?
(a) Geographical pricing
(b) Discriminatory pricing
(c) Penetrating pricing
(d) Skimming pricing - When a firm markets one or more new variants of the same category of the product under an already established and well-known brand name, this is called______.
(a) Line extension
(b) Brand extension
(c) Multi brand
(d) New brand - When the actual achievement of an employee is compared with the objective of the job, it is called.
(a) On – the – job training
(b) Job performance
(c) Job design
(d) Job assessment - Which of the following is not a participant in industrial relations?
(a) Employer
(b) Employees/Worker
(c) Government
(d) Recruitment Agents - Which of the following is not a duty of a Human Resource Manager?
(a) Plan and coordinate an organization workforce.
(b) Act as a bridge between organization management with its employees.
(c) Oversee an organization’s recruitment.
(d) Prepare financial information and its audit. - Which of the following is not a method of on the job training?
(a) Delegation of authority
(b) Internship
(c) Apprentice ship
(d) Management games - Which of the following ‘fundamental workers’ rights is NOT promoted by the International Labour Organization?
(a) The right to organize in a trade union
(b) The right to collective bargaining
(c) Protection from discrimination
(d) Elimination of prostitution - Which of the following terms defines the process in which representatives of a labour organization and the representative of the business organization meet and attempt to negotiate a contract or agreement, which specifies the nature of employee-employer union relationship?
(a) Cooperative bargaining
(b) Collective bargaining
(c) Mutual bargaining
(d) United bargaining - Which of the following is not a step in the process of collective bargaining?
(a) The creation of trade union
(b) The creation of the trade agreement
(c) The interpretation of the agreement
(d) The enforcement of the agreement - Which of the following is the main objective of performance appraisal?
(a) Facilitating promotion and salary increment decisions
(b) Estimating future production plan
(c) Creating new job profiles
(d) Reducing employee’s cost - Which of the following interview methods explains the intensive examination of a candidate’s background and thinking which also involves gathering considerable detail on a particular subject to special interest to the candidate?
(a) Stress Interview
(b) Depth interview
(c) Solemnity interview
(d) Pressure interview - Which of the following performance appraisal methods defines the process in which the appraiser or evaluator ranks the employees from the best to the poorest on the basis of their overall performance?
(a) Straight ranking method
(b) Paired comparison method
(c) Forced distribution method
(d) Graphic rating scale method - Which of the following terms of human resource management defines the measurement of the economic value of people to the organization?
(a) Human resource viability
(b) Human reserve accounting
(c) Human resource accounting
(d) Human resource bookkeeping - Which of the following organization was set up as one of its kind, public private partnership company with the Primary mandate of catalyzing the skills landscape in India?
(a) National skill Expansion corporation
(b) National skill Development corporation
(c) Indian skill development corporation
(d) National proficiency development corporation - Which of the following is not a component of the remuneration model?
(a) Pay survey
(b) Job hierarchy
(c) Job evaluation
(d) Job design - When was the trade union Act enacted in India?
(a) 1923
(b) 1927
(c) 1928
(d) 1929 - Which of the following training uses a psychological technique in which intensive group discussion and interaction are used to increase individual awareness of self and others?
(a) Simulation training
(b) Compassion training
(c) Sensitivity training
(d) Fellow feeling training - The concept of management by objectives (MBO) was given by:
(a) Dale Carnegie
(b) Peter F. Drucker
(c) Chester Barnard
(d) Richard L. Daft - When was the payment of Wages Act enacted?
(a) 1933
(b) 1934
(c) 1935
(d) 1936 - What is the name of the process that involves identifying analyzing and determining the duties, responsibilities, skills, abilities and work environment of a specific job?
(a) Job analysis
(b) Job description
(c) Job evaluation
(d) Job valuation - Who among the following was one of the founders of the Madras Labour Union?
(a) Bindeshwari Dubey
(b) Chaturanan Mishra
(c) Datta Samant
(d) BP Wadia - Which is the following is NOT a probability sampling method?
(a) Simple random sampling
(b) Stratified random sampling
(c) Cluster random sampling
(d) Purposive sampling - In the survey, if all persons have an equal chance of being selected, then it is called:
(a) Probability sampling
(b) Non-probability sampling
(c) Purposive sampling
(d) Expert sampling - What is the name of the sampling technique where the groups in the sample are proportional to the groups in the population?
(a) Haphazard sampling
(b) Quota sampling
(c) Heterogeneity sampling
(d) Snowball sampling - What is the name of the sampling method where a researcher choose every 5th person from the sample to conduct a servey?
(a) Systematic sampling
(b) Cluster random sampling
(c) Purposive sampling
(d) Expert sampling - What is the name of the sampling method in which the researcher identifies respondents who meet the criteria for inclusion in the study and then asks them to recommend other who could meet the criteria to include in the study?
(a) Heterogeneity sampling
(b) Snowball sampling
(c) Expert sampling
(d) Model instance sampling - What are the two main parameters of a normal distribution that determine the shape and probabilities of the distribution?
(a) Mean & Mode
(b) Mode & Median
(c) Median & standard deviation
(d) Mean & standard deviation - The probability of occurrence of a single event is called:
(a) Marginal probability
(b) Conditional probability
(c) Prior probability
(d) Posterior probability - The condition when the probability of some event is dependent on, or affected by, the occurrence of another or some other event is called:
(a) Random variable
(b) Joint probability
(c) Statistical dependence
(d) Combined probability - A graphical representation of possible outcome of a series of experiments and their resultant probabilities is called:
(a) Probability tree
(b) Probability flow
(c) Probability process
(d) Probability ranking - What is the term that refers to the non-rejection of a false null hypothesis and is used within the context of hypothesis testing?
(a) Type I
(b) Type II
(c) Type III
(d) Type IV - What is the name of the survey that is conducted with few individuals of the population or the sample of a survey, in order to test and refine the survey instruments (questionnaire and instruction manual, data processing manual and programs) before the main data collection across the target population or the full sample?
(a) Cross- sectional survey
(b) Pilot survey
(c) Longitudinal survey
(d) Experimental survey - What is the term used for a family of probability distribution- differentiated by their degrees of freedom – used to test a member of difference hypotheses about variances, proportions and distributional goodness of fit?
(a) Chi-square distribution
(b) Poisson distribution
(c) Binomial distribution
(d) Probability distribution - Who among the following had developed the theory of ANOVA?
(a) Leonhard Euler
(b) Ronald Fisher
(c) Carl friedrich Gauss
(d) Euclid, Born - What will be the coefficient of variation for minimum value = 2, maximum value = 12 , total = 40, mean = 10 and standard deviation = 5?
(a) 50
(b) 60
(c) 45
(d) 30 - According to the axioms of probability, what would be the probability of an event ‘A’ if ‘B’ denotes its complement?
(a) P (A) = 1+P (B)
(b) P (A) = 1/P (B)
(c) P (A) = 1-P (B)
(d) P (A) = 1 P (B) - Without replacing any card, If four cards are taken randomly from a deck of playing cards (52 Cards), then what is the likelihood that all four cards are club cards?
(a) 0.00164
(b) 0.00364
(c) 0.00264
(d) 0.00464 - A box contains 40 balls with numbers printed on them from 1 to 40. One ball is drawn at random. Find the probability that it will be a number of 3 or 5?
(a) 0.382
(b) 0.223
(c) 0.475
(d) 0.678 - Which of the following is not an e-commerce platform?
(a) Shopify
(b) Big commerce
(c) 3dcart
(d) Safari - What is the full form of MICR, which is used in the banking industry?
(a) Manageable INK Character Recognition
(b) Magnetic INK Character Report
(c) Magnetic INK Charm Recognition
(d) Magnetic INK Character Recognition - Which of the following protocols is used for encrypting the information so that the card details and all other sensitive data can be protected?
(a) SSL protocol
(b) TTL protocol
(c) IMAP protocol
(d) POP Protocol - What is the term used for a tunnel that connects your bank account to the platform where you need to transfer your money?
(a) Disbursement gateway
(b) Imbursement gateway
(c) Payment postern
(d) Payment gateway - In which of the following pricing strategies product prices continuously adjust- sometimes in a matter of minutes – in response to real time supply and demand?
(a) Time line pricing
(b) Discriminatory pricing
(c) By product pricing
(d) Dynamic pricing - In computer science, what is the term used for a set of rules or procedures for transmitting data between electronic devices, such as computers?
(a) Decorum
(b) Protocol
(c) Code of behaviour
(d) Etiquette - Which online business model is being explained using the below two points:
(i) It links consumers to online merchants, online shopping malls and auctions sites
(ii) It helps users to collect information on an item for which they are searching and allows users to browse independently – owned storefronts
(a) Portal business model
(b) Store front business model
(c) Auction business model
(d) Hybridge business model - What is the minimum amount prescribed for RTGS transactions under retail internet banking?
(a) Rs. 2 Lakh
(b) Rs. 5 Lakh
(c) Rs. 4 Lakh
(d) Rs. 10 Lakh - What is the name of the system introduced by the Indian government that powers multiple bank accounts into a single mobile application (of any participating bank), merging several banking features, seamless fund routing & merchant payments into one hood?
(a) United Payments Interface (UPI)
(b) Unified Payments Interface(UPI)
(c) Unified Payments Line (UOL)
(d) Unified Disbursements Interface (UDI) - Which of the following scientists is generally given credit as the inventor of the world wide web?
(a) Sergey Brin
(b) Tim Berners – Lee
(c) Larry Page
(d) Alan Turing - Which of the following organization has developed the BHIM app?
(a) National Payments Corporation of India
(b) Indian Payments Corporation of India
(c) Global Payments Corporation of India
(d) General Payments Corporation of India - The conceptual framework that describes functions of the networking or telecommunications system independently from the underlying technology infrastructure is called.
(a) Open Organizations Interconnection
(b) Exposed Systems Interconnection
(c) Open System Interlinking
(d) Open System Interconnection - Under normal circumstances, when does the beneficiary get the credit for an RTGS payment?
(a) Real time
(b) 12 Hours
(c) 2 Working days
(d) 6 Hours - Which of the following is not a web browser?
(a) UC Browser
(b) Mozilla Firefox
(c) Safari
(d) Google - What is the term used for an organization that card payments by acting as a link between merchants, issues and payment networks?
(a) Treasurer
(b) Bookkeeper
(c) Acquires
(d) Bursar - What is the name of the process of replacing sensitive data with unique identification symbols that retain all the essential information about the data without compromising its security?
(a) Recurring
(b) Verification
(c) Tokenisation
(d) Cleaning - Which of the following is a type of credit card theft where crooks use a small device to steal credit card information in an otherwise legitimate credit or debit card transaction?
(a) Card Gliding
(b) Card Skimming
(c) Card flying
(d) Card flick through - As per the recent announcement by RBL, from which the following dates the NEFT transactions are now allowed to be done even after the usual banking hours by using ‘ Straight Through Processing (STP) modes by the bank?
(a) 26 January 2019
(b) 16 December 2019
(c) 15 November 2019
(d) 12 October 2019 - Which of the following are the parts of an IP address?
(a) Grid part and host part
(b) Network part and host part
(c) Network part and cloud part
(d) Net part and congregation part - The address that is usually represented in dotted decimal notation and where each decimal value represents the four octets (bytes) is called:
(a) IPv3 address
(b) IPv4 address
(c) IPv2 address
(d) IPv1 addressAnswer Key
1 (d) 2 (d) 3 (d) 4 (a) 5 (c) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 (d) 9 (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (b) 13 (d) 14 (b) 15 (a) 16 (b) 17 (a) 18 (c) 19 (d) 20 (d) 21 (c) 22 (d) 23 (c) 24 (d) 25 (a) 26 (a) 27 (d) 28 (a) 29 (b) 30 (c) 31 (c) 32 (a) 33 (c) 34 (b) 35 (a) 36 (d) 37 (b) 38 (a) 39 (c) 40 (a) 41 (b) 42 (d) 43 (c) 44 (a) 45 (d) 46 (a) 47 (b) 48 (b) 49 (b) 50 (d) 51 (a) 52 (c) 53 (a) 54 (c) 55 (c) 56 (c) 57 (a) 58 (a) 59 (b) 60 (b) 61 (d) 62 (b) 63 (a) 64 (c) 65 (d) 66 (*) 67 (c) 68 (c) 69 (a) 70 (b) 71 (c) 72 (d) 73 (a) 74 (b) 75 (c) 76 (d) 77 (b) 78 (d) 79 (b) 80 (d) 81 (a) 82 (c) 83 (b) 84 (c) 85 (d) 86 (d) 87 (a) 88 (b) 89 (d) 90 (d) 91 (c) 92 (a) 93 (d) 94 (a) 95 (b) 96 (d) 97 (d) 98 (d) 99 (d) 100 (b)101 (a) 102 (a) 103 (b) 104 (a) 105 (c) 106 (b) 107 (d) 108 (*) 109 (c) 110 (b) 111 (d) 112 (a) 113 (d) 114 (d) 115 (a) 116 (b) 117 (a) 118 (b) 119 (d) 120 (a)121 (c) 122 (a) 123 (b) 124 (b) 125 (a) 126 (b) 127 (a) 128 (c) 129 (c) 130 (c) 131 (d) 132 (d) 133 (a) 134 (d) 135 (d) 136 (b) 137 (a) 138 (a) 139 (b) 140 (b) 141 (a)142 (d) 143 (a) 144 (d) 145 (c) 146 (c) 147 (b) 148 (b) 149 (b) 150 (b)
*= Wrong Answer