M.Com Entrance Question CU CET 2022

CUET M.Com Entrance -2022

  1. Choose the correct form of verb to fill in the blank.
    Knowledge is ______ that we can not know.
    (a) known
    (b) without know
    (c) knowing
    (d) know
  2. Choose the correct pair of prepositions, in the correct sequence, from among the four options given, to fill in the blanks in the following sentence :
    The book was lying __________ the table and the paper were ______ that.
    (a) in; under
    (b) besides; underneath
    (c) above; over
    (d) under; underneath
  3. Pick out the correctly spelt word,
    (a) assiduous
    (b) asiduous
    (c) assidous
    (d) assedious
  4. Identify the correct form of indirect speech of the following sentence.
    The teacher said to Arjun, “Go away.”
    (a) The teacher requested Arjun to go away.
    (b) Arjun asked the teacher if he could go away.
    (c) The teacher ordered Arjun to go away.
    (d) The teacher told Arjun that he can go away.
  5. Rearrange the following parts of a sentence labeled as PQRS to make a meaningful sentence
    P it clearly is no better than
    Q having knowledge but
    R never having any ideas at all
    S lacking the power to express
    (a) RPQS
    (b) QPRS
    (c) QSPR
    (d) SPRQ
  6. Pick out the antonym of ‘vulnerable’
    (a) Stoicism
    (b) Immune
    (c) Incompetent
    (d) Capable
  7. Pick out the meaning of the underlined idiom in the following sentence.
    Rina broke off in the middle of her story.
    (a) left
    (b) began anew
    (c) stopped suddenly
    (d) clarified
  8. Choose the correct passive voice from the following sentence.
    We ought to respect our teachers.
    (a) Our teachers must be respected.
    (b) Our teachers should be respected
    (c) Our teachers ought to be respected.
    (d) We need to respect our teachers
  9. Pick out the synonym of the following word.
    envisage
    (a) command
    (b) condemn
    (c) contemplate
    (d) curious
  10. Choose the correct sentence.
    (a) I found the food unedible.
    (b) I found the food inedible.
    (c) I found the food inaudible
    (d) I found the food unedible
  11. ‘Commemorative Stamp’ is printed in honour of specific person, while the postage stamps for regular use are called :
    (a) Post – Stamps
    (b) Regular Stamps
    (c) Definitive Stamps
    (d) Postal Stamps
  12. Identify the location of India’s Astronomical Observatory.
    (a) Itanagar
    (b) Bangalore
    (c) Sriharikota
    (d) Ladakh
  13. Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion -A and the other is labeled as Reason-R
    Assertion A: It is reported in The Hindu recently that custodial death (both police and judicial) amounted to more than 11 thousand in the last few years.
    Reason R: Police brutality in Indian jails has increased many times.
    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
    below :
    (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    (b) Both A and R are but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    (c) A is true but R is false
    (d) A is false but R is true
  14. What is the largest organ of human body ?
    (a) Brain
    (b) Lung
    (c) Skin
    (d) Stomach
  15. Identify the correct combination of elements in Permafrost.
    (A) Soil
    (B) Oil
    (C) Gravel
    (D) Sand
    (E) Ice
    (F) Snow
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) C, D, B, F
    (b) A, B, D, E
    (c) A, C, D, E
    (d) A, B, E, F
  16. A crossing had four paths leading to College, Hospital, School and Market. If Ram has to reach Market from Hospital, he has to travel towards East and cross the crossing. If College is in the North of the crossing, in which direction is School from the crossing ?
    (a) North
    (b) South
    (c) East
    (d) West
  17. A statement is followed by two courses of action. Assume everything in the statement is true and on the basis of the information given in the statement decide
    which of the course of action logically follows for pursuing
    Statements: The Helicopter service in U.S. is running into losses since its launch 20 years back.
    Course of Action
    Statement : (I) The helicopter service should be given financial assistance of $ 300 million dollars to sustain itself.
    Statements : (II) The helicopter service should hire a consultant who can advise them measures which can be taken to reduce expenditure.
    (a) Only (I) follows
    (b) Only (II) follows
    (c) Both (I) and (II) follow
    (d) Neither (I) nor (II) follows
  18. The following question has a statement & three conclusions. Check the conclusion on the basis of the statement and choose the correct option :
    Statement: A manager advised seven workers to resign due to low productivity or
    they will terminated tomorrow. Six workers resigned immediately.
    Conclusion : (i) One worker will resign tomorrow.
    (ii) The manager will terminate him tomorrow.
    (iii) The workers may not resign and shall also not be terminated.
    (a) Only (i) follows
    (b) only (ii) follows
    (c) only (iii) follows
    (d) Either or follows
  19. There are three intersecting circles I, S, P, circle I stands for Class XII, S stands for Students and P stands for poor. Different regions are represented by letters from a to g.Which region is represented by Class XII students who are not poor?
    (a) Only a
    (b) Only d
    (c) Both a and d
    (d) Only b
  20. A Statement is followed by two courses of action. Assume the information given in the statement is true. Only the basis of the statement decide which course action logically follows for Perusing.
    Statement:The Chief Minister has received a complaint regarding demand of bribe by a senior officer for favoring an industry.
    Course of action :
    (i) The investigating agency should catch the officer red-handed and take legal course of action.
    (ii) The Chief Minister should wait for more complaints about the officer as this might be one odd case.
    (a) Only (i) follows
    (b) Only (ii) follows
    (c) Neither (i) nor (ii) follows
    (d) Both (i) and (ii) follow
  21. One tap can fill an empty cistern in 2 hours and another tap can empty the same field cistern in 3 hours. The time taken to fill the cistern in both the taps are opened, is :
    (a) 6 hours
    (b) 7 hours
    (c) 6.30 hours
    (d) 8 hours
  22. In how many different ways can the letters of the word THERAPY be arranged so that the vowels never come together?
    (a) 1440
    (b) 5040
    (c) 3600
    (d) 4800
  23. In the four consecutive prime numbers that are in ascending order, the product of first three is 385 and that of last three is 1001. The largest prime number is :
    (a) 11
    (b) 13
    (c) 17
    (d) 19
  24. If 1.5 = 0.04y, then the value of is :
    (a) 730/77
    (b) 73/77
    (c) 7.3/77
    (d) 0.73/77
  25. The sum of the present ages of father and son is 90 years. 10 years earlier, the ratio of their ages was 5:2 the present age of the father is :
    (a) 65 years
    (b) 68 years
    (c) 60 years
    (d) 70 years

Part B

  1. As per the principle of __________, no one can make profit by insuring with multiple insures.
    (a) Co-insurance
    (b) Indemnity
    (c) Subrogation
    (d) Contribution
  2. Which Principle of Insurance is not applicable to Life Insurance?
    (a) Utmost Good  faith
    (b) Causa proxima
    (c) Subrogation
    (d) Insurable Interest
  3. Match list – I with list-II
    List-I
    (Specific Sector)
    (A) Capital Market
    (B) Insurance Sector
    (C) Banking Sector
    (D) Telecom Sector
    List-II
    (Regulatory Body)
    (I) TRAI
    (II) RBI
    (III) SEBI
    (IV) IRDA
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    (b) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    (c) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    (d) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  4. The share capital of a RRB is subscribed by Central Government the state Government and sponsoring Bank in the ratio of :
    (a) 50: 25: 25
    (b) 50: 15: 35
    (c) 40 : 30: 30
    (d) 40: 40: 20
  5. Which of the following banks is established to support Agriculture Finance?
    (a) SBI
    (b) RBI
    (c) NABARD
    (d) Bank of Baroda
  6. Which of the following is not an asset of Commercial Banks?
    (a) Bills of Exchange
    (b) Demand Deposit
    (c) Cash Reserve with RBI
    (d) Money lent to customers
  7. Which of the following is the Asset function of money?
    (a) Unit of Account
    (b) Medium of Exchange
    (c) Standard of deferred payment
    (d) Store of value
  8. In order to increase money supply in the economy :
    (a) Bank Rate and CRR should be increased
    (b) Bank Rate should increase and CRR should decrease
    (c) Bank rates should decrease and CRR should increase
    (d) Both Bank Rate and CRR should be decreased
  9. Which of the following functions are involved under marketing management’s functions?
    (A) Collection of marketing
    (B) Marketing co-ordination
    (C) Marketing controlling
    (D) Marketing planning
    (E) Marketing evaluation
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) A, B and C
    (b) A, B and D
    (c) A, B, C and D
    (d) A, B, C, D and E
  10. Rising promotion costs and shrinking profit margins are the results of which of the following?
    (a) Globalisation
    (b) Deregulation
    (c) Heightened competition
    (d) Changing technology
  11. “Marketing is a human activity directed at satisfying needs and wants through exchange process.” Who said?
    (a) Philip kotler
    (b) Peter F. Drucker
    (c) Hansi L. V.
    (d) D.S. Pauler
  12. Match list – I with list-II
    List-I (P’s of marketing)
    (A) Product
    (B) Price
    (C) Promotion
    (D) Place
    List-II (Elements)
    (I) Warranty
    (II) Credit facility
    (III) Personal selling
    (IV) Factory location
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    (b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    (c) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
    (d) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  13. Advertising does not appear to be important in
    (a) Brand Image
    (b) Highlighting specific feature
    (c) Information
    (d) All of these
  14. Customers buy from stores and firms that offer the highest _________
    (a) Company Image
    (b) Value for the money
    (c) Customer perceived value
    (d) Level of customer satisfaction
  15. Promotion Mix is the particular combination of promotional tools used by a company to _______ with its audiences.
    (a) Help
    (b) Communicate
    (c) Purchasing Decision
    (d) Plan
  16. In a perfectly competitive market, a farm to be in equilibrium in the long run achieves normal profit only when
    (a) Average cost and average revenue will be equal
    (b) Marginal cost and marginal revenue will be equal
    (c) Average variable cost and marginal revenue will be equal
    (d) AC = I, MC = AR=MR are all equal
  17. Match list – I with list-II
    List-I (Tool/Theory)
    (A) Demand Analysis
    (B) Cost and Product Analysis
    (C) Capital Management
    (D) Profit Management
    List-II (Application)
    (I) Demand forecasting
    (II) Cost output relationship
    (III) Price estimates
    (IV) Profit policies
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
    (b) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II(c) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    (d) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  18. Under price discrimination, price will be higher in the market where demand is:
    (a) Highly elastic
    (b) Unitary elastic
    (c) Less elastic
    (d) None of these
  19. Which of the following is the method of measuring elasticity of demand when change in price of a commodity is substantial ?
    (a) Point method
    (b) Percentage method
    (c) Arc method
    (d) None of these
  20. If marginal cost is above average variable cost at a time when output is rising, then
    (a) Average variable cost is falling
    (b) Average variable cost is rising
    (c) Average total cost is falling
    (d) None of these
  21. Match list – I with list-II
    List-I
    (Methods of Quantitative Economics)
    (A) Inventory Control
    (B) L.P.P
    (C) Game theory
    (D) Inventory Valuation
    List-II
    (Tools/Techniques)
    (I) Simplex
    (II) Saddle point
    (III) FIFO
    (IV) VED
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
    (b) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
    (c) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
    (d) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  22. The EOQ of an item is calculated using the annual demand together with _____ and ________
    (a) Indirect and Holding costs
    (b) Direct and Variable costs
    (c) Ordering and Holding costs
    (d) Direct and Ordering costs
  23. Which of the following are true in the context of company law?
    (a) In case of transfer of shares, stamp duty is essential.
    (b) For transmission of shares no consideration is necessary.
    (c) A person cannot be director of more than 30 companies at the same time.
    (d) Departmental undertaking is a type of government undertaking
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) A, B, C, D
    (b) A, B and C
    (c) A, B and E
    (d) All of these
  24. Match list – I with list-II
    List-I (Methods of Quantitative Economics)
    (A) 1
    (B) 3
    (C) 4
    (D) 6
    List-II (Title in Memorandum of Association)
    (I) Object clause
    (II) Liability clause
    (III) Association clause
    (IV) Name clause
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
    (b) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
    (c) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
    (d) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
  25. Staffing includes ……..
    (a) Training
    (b) Appraisal
    (c) Placement
    (d) Directing
    Choose the correct answer from the following options given below :
    (a) A and C
    (b) B and C
    (c) A, B and C
    (d) A, B, C and D
  26. An organisation structure is effective if it enables individuals to contribute to the objectives of the enterprise. This is known as ………….
    (a) Scalar principle
    (b) Principle of functional definition
    (c) Principle of unity of objectives
    (d) None of these
  27. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R
    Assertion A: According to Taylor, one best way of doing each task leads to increase in productivity in organisation.
    Reason R: It was the management responsibility alone to find out the one bestway.
    In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
    (b) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    (c) A is correct but R is incorrect
    (d) A is not correct but R is correct
  28. Match list – I with list-II
    List-I (Theories of Leadership)
    (A) The follower theory
    (B) The behavioural theory
    (C) The great man theory
    (D) The trial theory
    List-II (Example)
    (I) Effective leader
    (II) Character of leader theory
    (III) Leader is a leader
    (IV) Personality
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    (b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    (c) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    (d) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  29. Match list – I with list-II
    List-I (Element of Broad Category)
    (A) Grapevine
    (B) Unity of direction
    (C) Time and Motion study
    (D) Budget
    List-II (Broad Category)
    (I) Tools of control
    (II) Scientific management
    (III) Form of communication
    (IV) Management principle
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    (b) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    (c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    (d) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  30. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
    Assertion A: The neglect of the human side of the organisation has been one of the major criticism of Taylorism.
    Reason R: Taylor and his followers at viewed organisation mechanistically.
    In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
    (b) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    (c) A is correct but R is incorrect
    (d) A is not correct but R is correct
  31. Sole proprietorship is most suitable for
    (a) Small-scale concern
    (b) Legal scale concern
    (c) Medium-scale concern
    (d) Person who wants to share profits
  32. Matrix organisation refers to a term of
    (a) Organisation where authority and responsibility co-exist.
    (b) Organisation in which two or more basic types of departmentation are combined.
    (c) Organisation where events are mathematically arranged in columns and rows.
    (d) None of these
  33. Organisation theory deals with ………………….
    (a) Industrial Relations
    (b) Incentives and wages policy
    (c) Structure of an organisation
    (d) Forms of business organisation
  34. The scale of Goods Act, was enacted on :
    (a) 15 th February, 1930
    (b) 15 th March, 1930
    (c) 15 th April, 1930
    (d) 15 th January, 1930
  35. Section 28 to 24 D of the Income Tax Act, 1961 is related to
    (a) Income from House Property
    (b) Income from Salary
    (c) Income from Capital Gain
    (d) Profits and Gains from Business and Profession
  36. If an asset is put to use for less than 180 days in the previous year, the depreciation is charged at which rate of the following as per Income tax Act?
    (a) 30%
    (b) 50%
    (c) 25%
    (d) Nil
  37. Calculate the Gross Annual Value from the following details :
    Municipal value : Rs. 45,000
    Fair Rental value : Rs. 50,000
    Standard Rental value : Rs. 48,000
    Actual Rental value : Rs.42,000
    (a) Rs. 50,000
    (b) Rs. 48,000
    (c) Rs. 45,000
    (d) Rs. 42,000
  38. Match list – I with list-II
    List-I (Head of Income)
    (A) House Property
    (B) Salary
    (C) Profit and Gains from Business and Profession
    (D) Capital Gain
    List-II (Part of the Head)
    (I) Sale of Bond
    (II) Car Facility
    (III) Annual value
    (IV) Income from Filing of Returns
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    (b) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    (c) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
    (d) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  39. Which of the following is not applicable to responsibility accounting?
    (a) Accounting centre
    (b) Cost centre
    (c) Investment centre
    (d) Profit centre
  40. The main difference between marginal costing and absorption costing lies in the treatment of which of the following ?
    (a) Direct cost
    (b) Fixed overhead
    (c) Variable overhead
    (d) Semi-variable overhead
  41. Match list – I with list-II
    List-I (Event)
    (A) Reducing capital
    (B) Sales >Variable cost
    (C) Sales > Break-even sales
    (D) Take-over of firm
    List-II (Results)
    (I) Contribution
    (II) Reorganisation
    (III) Absorption
    (IV) IRDA
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    (b) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
    (c) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    (d) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  42. Internal Auditor is appointed and removed by the
    (a) Management
    (b) Share holders
    (c) Government
    (d) C.A.G.
  43. Detection of errors and fraud in audit is :
    (a) Primary objective
    (b) Secondary objective
    (c) Specific objective
    (d) Non-relevant objective
  44. The objective of the transportation problem is to :
    (A) Maximise profit
    (B) Minimise profit
    (C) Neither Maximise profit nor Minimise profit
    (D) Maximising losses
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) A and C
    (b) B and D
    (c) A and B
    (d) A, B and D
  45. Under Annuity Due, Payment is due at the …………..
    (a) end of the time
    (b) beginning of the time
    (c) middle of the time
    (d) none of these
  46. The following is a short-run cost function
    TC = 200 + 5Q + 2
    Find out the optimum level of output when AC = MC
    (a) 5
    (b) 10
    (c) 20
    (d) 20
  47. The mean monthly salary paid to 77 employees in a company was Rs. 78. The mean salary of 32 of them was Rs. 45 and of the other 25 was Rs. 82. What was the mean salary of remaining?
    (a) Rs. 124.8
    (b) Rs. 125.8
    (c) Rs. 126.8
    (d) Rs. 127.8
  48. The rank correlation coefficient between Marks obtained by 10 students in English and Mathematics was found to be 0.5. Find the sum of squares of difference of ranks.
    (a) 81.5
    (b) 82.5
    (c) 83.5
    (d) 84.5
  49. Which of the following persons are not competent to contact?
    (a) Persons of unsound mind
    (b) Person disqualified by law
    (c) Minors
    (d) All of these
  50. When the consent of a party is obtained by coercion, undue influence, fraud or misrepresentation, the contract is :
    (a) Valid
    (b) Voidable
    (c) Void
    (d) Illegal
  51. Given below are two statements :
    Statement-I: Convenience sampling is a type of non-random sampling methods
    statements-II:Quota sampling is probabilistic sampling technique
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options
    given below :
    (a) Both Statement – I and Statement – II are correct.
    (b) Both Statement – I and Statement – II are incorrect.
    (c) Statement – I is correct but Statement – II is incorrect.
    (d) Statement – II is incorrect but Statement – II is correct.
  52. Match list – I with list-II
    List-I (Statistical topic)
    (A) Interpolation
    (B) Regression coefficients
    (C) Sampling
    (D) Correlation Analysis
    List-II (Method)
    (I) Probabilistic
    (II) Newton
    (III) Scatter Diagram
    (IV) Deviations
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    (b) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    (c) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    (d) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  53. The total area of a normal distribution between average value ± 1.96 of standard deviation is :
    (a) 95.45%
    (b) 95%
    (c) 99%
    (d) 68.34%
  54. Which formula may be used for calculation of coefficient of correlation ?
    (a) x = byx X bxy
    (b) r =
    (c) r =
    (d) byx + bxy
  55. Which of the following is not a property of standard deviation?
    (a) σ X + k = σ X +k
    (b) σ X + k = σ X
    (c) σ X x k = k x σ X
    (d) σ X ÷ k =
  56. In Indian context, the emphasis on import substitution often run counter to ……………….
    (a) the objective of management development
    (b) the objective of sports development
    (c) the objective of skill development
    (d) the objective of technology development
  57. Reasons for Adopting Globalization.
    (A) Profit advantage
    (B) Growth Opportunity
    (C) Domestic Market Constraints
    (D) Spin of benefits
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) A and B
    (b) C and D
    (d) A, B and D
    (c) All of these
  58. Arrange the following acts in the order in which they came into force.
    (A) The Monopolies Restrictive Trade Practice Act
    (B) Indian Contract Act
    (C) The Sale of Goods Act
    (D) The Foreign Exchange Management Act
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) B, C, A, D
    (b) C, A, D, B
    (c) A, B, C, D
    (d) D, C, B, A
  59. Given below are two statements: One is labelled Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
    Assertion A: Industrial policy 1991 initiated liberalisation of Indian economy.
    Reason R: Industrial growth was very slow before 1991.
    In the light of the statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    (c) A is true but R is false
    (d) A is false but R is true
  60. Which of the following is not an objective of planning?
    (a) Economic growth
    (b) Setting of Heavy Industry
    (c) Modernisation
    (d) None of these
  61. Given below are two statements: One is labelled Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
    Assertion A: Ratio analysis is one of the tools employed to know the financial health of a concern.
    Reason R: Ratio analysis is not the only technique available to take investment decision.
    In the light of the statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
    below :
    (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    (c) A is true but R is false
    (d) A is false but R is true
  62. Working capital = 60,000
    Current Ratio = 2.5 : 1
    Liquid ratio = 1.5 : 1
    What is the value of stock?
    (a) 60,000
    (b) 1,00,000
    (c) 20,000
    (d) 40,000
  63. Which of the following are qualitative characteristics of financial statement?
    (A) Relevance
    (B) Reliability
    (C) Comparability
    (D) Understandability
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) A, C and B
    (b) B, C and D
    (c) B and C
    (d) A, B, C and D
  64. Given below are two statements: One is labelled Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
    Assertion A: Under diminishing balance method of depreciation, the charge for depreciation keeps on diminishing year after year in all subsequent years.
    Reason R: Under diminishing balance method, the rate percent at which depreciation is written off goes on diminishing from year to year.
    In the light of the statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
    below :
    (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    (c) A is true but R is false
    (d) A is false but R is true
  65. In case of Installment payment system the ownership is transferred from the vendor to the purchase.
    (a) Immediately
    (b) On the payment of last installment
    (c) On the Recovery of goods
    (d) On the payment of Instruments premium
  66. On the admission of a new partner, the balance of the profit and loss adjustment account should be transferred to the capital account of
    (a) All partners in their new profit-sharing ratio
    (b) Old partners in their old profit-sharing ratio
    (c) Old partners in their new profit sharing ratio
    (d) Old partners in their sacrificing ratio
  67. Which one is not the main objective of fiscal policy out of the following?
    (a) To promote price stability
    (b) To minimize the inequalities of Income and Wealth
    (c) To promote employment opportunities
    (d) To increase liquidity in the economy
  68. Match list – I with list-II
    List-I (Aggregate)
    (A) Personal Income
    (B) Disposable Income
    (C) NNP at factor cost
    (D) NNP
    List-II (Formula)
    (I) Private Income – Undistributed Corporate Profit – Profit taxes
    (II) Personal Income – Direct Taxes
    (III) NNP at market price – Indirect taxes + Subsidies
    (IV) GNP – Depreciation
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
    (b) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    (c) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    (d) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  69. Given below are two statements: One is labelled Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
    Assertion A: Industrialisation of an economy is considered synonymous with growth.
    Reason R: The transfer of resources from agriculture to industry may be capital or labour or both .
    In the light of the statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    (c) A is true but R is false
    (d) A is false but R is true
  70. Match list – I with list-II
    List-I (Institution/Act)
    (A) Unit Trust of India
    (B) Imperial Bank of India
    (C) Banking Regulation Act
    (D) LIC
    List-II (Year of Establishment)
    (I) 1921
    (II) 1956
    (III) 1964
    (IV) 1949
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    (b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    (c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    (d) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  71. Match List – I with List-II
    List-I (Financial Institutions / Events)
    (A) Reserve Bank of India
    (B) Nationalisation of 14 major Commercial Banks
    (C) Nationalisation of 6 Commercial Banks
    (D) IFCI
    List-II (Year of Establishment/ Occurrence)
    (I) 1948
    (II) 1935
    (III) 1969
    (IV) 1980
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
    (b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    (c) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
    (d) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  72. RBI Notifies CRR under section ________ of Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
    (a) 24
    (b) 36
    (c) 40
    (d) 42
  73. Which of the following is not a negotiable Instrument?
    (a) Pay order
    (b) Cheque
    (c) Bill of Exchange
    (d) Bank draft
  74. In context to Information Technology and Communication, ISDN stands for _____________
    (a) Integrated Security Digital Network
    (b) Integrated Services Digital Network
    (c) Integral Services Digital Number
    (d) Integral Security Digital Number
  75. Paperless office of modern business units focuses on :
    (a) No use of buildings and equipments
    (b) No use of human resources
    (c) Use of electronic mode for communication
    (d) More and more use of physical files