Karnataka 2015 Commerce – Paper III

  1. Which of the following statements is true ?
    (a) Higher the beta, lower the risk
    (b) Higher the beta, higher the risk
    (c) If beta is zero, total risk is zero
    (d) Beta is unrelated to risk
  2. Amount of risk reduction in a portfolio depends upon
    (a) Market movement
    (b) Degree of correlation
    (c) No. of shares
    (d) Duration of the portfolio
  3. NAA Committee on accounting for corporate social performance has not identified, one of the following
    (a) Community Development
    (b) HRD
    (c) Physical Resources and Environmental Considerations
    (d) Corporate Governance
  4. Match List – I with List – II :
    List – I List – II
    a. Inflation Accounting I) HRA
    b. Cost centres  II) Social Accounting
    c. Jaggi and Lau model  III) Responsibility Accounting
    d. CSR IV) CCA

    Codes :
    a b c d
    (a) IV III I II
    (b) III I II IV
    (c) IV II I III
    (d) II I IV III

  5. Match List I with List II :
    List – I List – II
    a. C.B. Bhave Committee I) Delisting norms for stock exchanges
    b. Dr. K. R. Chandratre Committee  II) SEBI
    c. SEC  III) RBI
    d. ECBs  IV) Foreign Debt
    V) Corporate Disclosure standards

    Codes :
    a b c d
    (a) I V II IV
    (b) V I III IV
    (c) V I II IV
    (d) V I IV III

  6. Match List – I with List – II :
    List – I  List – II
    a. Exit Load  I) Computerised Accounting
    b. Treasury Bill II) Sale of Mutual Fund Units
    c. Factoring III) Money Market
    d. Tally IV) Refinancing Debt
    V) Lease Financing

    Codes :
    a b c d
    (a) II III IV I
    (b) III II IV I
    (c) V II III I
    (d) V III II I

  7. Normally, direct ask price is _____ than the direct bid price.
    (a) Equal
    (b) Greater
    (c) Lesser
    (d) Not related
  8. In India, derivatives in interest rates are regulated by
    (a) SEBI
    (b) Forward Market Commission
    (c) RBI
    (d) MOF
  9. Merger of two companies under BIFR supervision is known as
    (a) Reverse merger
    (b) Negotiated merger
    (c) Offer for sale
    (d) Arranged merger
  10. A short term lease which is often cancellable is known as
    (a) Finance lease
    (b) Net lease
    (c) Operating lease
    (d) Leverage lease
  11. Commercial paper are generally issued at prices
    (a) Equal to face value
    (b) More than face value
    (c) Less than face value
    (d) Equal to redemption value
  12. Which of the following is a liability of a bank ?
    (a) Treasury Bills
    (b) Commercial papers
    (c) CDs
    (d) Junk Bonds
  13. Which of the following is not available in India ?
    (a) Index options
    (b) Index futures
    (c) Commodity options
    (d) Commodity futures
  14. Risk can be defined as
    I. Actual return – expected return
    II. The surprise portion of an announcement
    III. Both systematic and unsystematic
    IV. The discounted portion of an announcement
    Codes :
    (a) I and IV only
    (b) II and III only
    (c) I, II and III only
    (d) II, III and IV only
  15. Which one of the following is an example of unsystematic risk ?
    (a) An increase in inflation
    (b) Decrease in interest rates
    (c) Decrease in rupee value
    (d) Labour strike against a plastic firm
  16. Which concept of marketing philosophy recognises that “everything matters” ?
    (a) The production concept
    (b) The product concept
    (c) The marketing concept
    (d) The holistic marketing concept
  17. Who proposed the concept of meta market ?
    (a) Sawhney
    (b) Robert Lauterborn
    (c) Philip Kotler
    (d) Levitt
  18. Match the following :
    List – A List – B
    a. Product  i) Communication
    b. Price  ii) Convenience
    c. Place  iii) Customer solution
    d. Promotion  iv) Customer cost

    Codes :
    a b c d
    (a) i ii iv iii
    (b) iii iv ii i
    (c) ii iii iv i
    (d) iii ii i iv

  19. Assertion (a) : Corporate social marketing leads to social change.
    Reasoning (R) : Making gifts of money or goods to individuals or groups is one of corporate social initiatives.
    Codes :
    (a) Both (a) and (R) are correct
    (b) (a) is correct and (R) is not correct
    (c) (a) is incorrect and (R) is correct
    (d) Both (a) and (R) are incorrect
  20. What is the correct order of the following in strategic marketing ?
    i. Targeting
    ii. Positioning
    iii. Segmenting
    iv. Selling
    Codes :
    (a) iv i ii iii
    (b) iii i ii iv
    (c) ii i iii iv
    (d) iv iii ii i
  21. Modern marketing is a process of
    (a) Choosing the value
    (b) Providing the value
    (c) Communicating the value
    (d) Choosing, providing and communicating the value
  22. The marketing strategy, which aims at selling the current products in the markets
    for gaining more market share, is called
    (a) Product Development Strategy
    (b) Market Development Strategy
    (c) Market Penetration Strategy
    (d) Diversification Strategy
  23. Assertion (a) : Absence of defensive marketing action would lead to an environmental threat.
    Reasoning (R) : Environmental threat caused by an unfavourable trend in market results in decline in sales or profits.
    Codes :
    (a) Both (a) and (R) are correct
    (b) (a) is correct and (R) is incorrect
    (c) (a) is incorrect and (R) is correct
    (d) Both (a) and (R) are incorrect
  24. Match the following :
    List – A List – B
    a. Platinum customers  i) Low profitable but desirable
    b. Gold customers  ii) Unprofitable and undesirable
    c. Iron customers iii) Most profitable
    d. Lead customers iv) Profitable

    Codes :
    a b c d
    (a) i ii iii iv
    (b) ii i iii iv
    (c) iii iv i ii
    (d) iv iii ii i

  25. Which of the following is/are included in building brand loyalty ?
    i. Basic marketing
    ii. Reactive marketing
    iii. Proactive marketing
    iv. Partnership marketing
    Codes :
    (a) only i
    (b) only iv
    (c) i, ii and iii
    (d) i, ii, iii and iv
  26. Customer value is equal to
    (a) Customer benefits – Customer costs
    (b) Customer benefits – Product benefits
    (c) Customer benefits – Service benefits
    (d) Customer benefits – Image benefits
  27. Intensive distribution strategy is adopted when the product reached __________
    stage of its life cycle.
    (a) Introductory stage
    (b) Growth stage
    (c) Maturity stage
    (d) Decline stage
  28. Assertion (a) : The product life cycle concept yields a product – oriented picture rather than a market – oriented picture.
    Reason (R) : The PLC is not an independent variable to which the company should adopt their marketing programmes.
    Codes :
    (a) Both (a) and (R) are correct
    (b) (a) is correct and (R) is incorrect
    (c) (a) is incorrect and (R) is correct
    (d) Both (a) and (R) are incorrect
  29. Arrange the following needs as per Maslow’s hierarchy of needs.
    i. Self actualisation needs
    ii. Social needs
    iii. Esteem needs
    iv. Physiological needs
    v. Safety needs
    Codes :
    (a) iv v ii iii i
    (b) i ii iv v iii
    (c) ii iii v iv i
    (d) iii ii iv v i
  30. Match the following :
    List – A List – B
    a. Counterfeiter i) Takes leader’s product and improves it
    b. Cloner ii) Copies things from the leader
    c. Imitator iii) Emulates leader’s product
    d. Adapter iv) Duplicates leader’s product
    Codes :
    a b c d
    (a) i iii ii iv
    (b) iii ii i iv
    (c) ii i iii iv
    (d) iv iii ii i
  31. The traditional term used for humanresource planning is
    (a) Gap analysis
    (b) Employee planning
    (c) Personnel planning
    (d) Man-power planning
  32. Heavy reliance on internal recruitment can result in
    (a) Internal conflict
    (b) Reduced performance
    (c) High labour turnover
    (d) Poor group dynamics
  33. Statements :
    I. Balanced score card is a measurement framework that help managers translate strategic goals into operational objectives.
    II. Ergonomics is an interdisciplinary approach for designing equipment and systems that can be easily and efficiently used by human beings.
    (a) Both are correct
    (b) Both are incorrect
    (c) I is correct II is incorrect
    (d) II is correct I is incorrect
  34. Match the following :
    List – A List – B
    a. Reliability i) The extent to which a selection tool measures a theoretical construct
    b. Validity ii) The degree to which selection procedures yield comparable data over time and alternative measures
    c. Content validity iii) The degree to which selection procedure measures a person’s
    attributes
    d. Concurrent validity iv) The extent to which test scores match the data obtained from
    current employees
    Codes :
    a b c d
    (a) ii i iv iii
    (b) iv ii iii i
    (c) ii iii i iv
    (d) ii i iii iv
  35. Which of the following are generic skills ?
    a. Leadership
    b. Team working
    c. Motivation
    d. IT skills
    (a) a, b and d
    (b) a, b and c
    (c) a and b
    (d) b and c
  36. A performance rating system is
    (a) Achievements during the current year
    (b) The degree of performance of an organisation
    (c) Details of the extent to which objectives are achieved
    (d) A score relating to overall performance
  37. The process of identifying, developing and tracking key individuals is called
    (a) Human resource planning
    (b) Succession planning
    (c) Selection
    (d) Recruitment
  38. A team widely disbursed but linked through computer technology is called
    (a) Employee teams
    (b) Work groups
    (c) Virtual teams
    (d) Top management team
  39. Statements :
    I. The point system is a qualitative job evaluation procedure that determines a job’s relative value.
    II. Transfer of training refers to the effective application of principles learned to what is required on thejob.
    (a) I is correct II is incorrect
    (b) II is correct I is incorrect
    (c) Both are correct
    (d) Both are incorrect
  40. Match the following :
    List – A List – B
    a. Cross functional teams i) A group formed for a specific job
    b. Project teams ii) A group consisting of specialists from different departments
    c. Self-directed teams iii) A group formed to solve a major problem immediately
    d. Task force teams iv) Highly trained individuals performing a set of interdependent jobs
    Codes :
    a b c d
    (a) iii ii i iv
    (b) i ii iv iii
    (c) ii i iii iv
    (d) ii i iv iii
  41. Lines of advancement in an occupational field within an organisation is called
    (a) Career path
    (b) Promotion
    (c) Transfer
    (d) Job progression
  42. __________ involves determining which employees need training and which do not.
    (a) Training need analysis
    (b) Person analysis
    (c) Competency assessment
    (d) Work-force scanning
  43. The term union density refers to
    (a) The total number of workers who are union members
    (b) The proportion of workers who are not the members of union
    (c) The proportion of workers who are the members of union
    (d) The number of workers whose pay is set by collective bargaining
  44. The reasons for using multiple systems of performance appraisal are
    a. To provide employees with a choice methods
    b. To prevent the misuse of performance appraisal systems by the managers
    c. Different systems are required for different departments
    d. To separate reward and non-reward aspects of appraisal
    Codes :
    (a) a, b and c
    (b) b, c and d
    (c) c, d and a
    (d) c and d
  45. Statements :
    I. Spot bonus is an unplanned bonus given for employee effort unrelated to an established performance measure.
    II. A promotion is a change of assignment to a job at a higher level in an organisation.
    Codes :
    (a) Both are correct
    (b) Both are incorrect
    (c) I is correct, II is incorrect
    (d) II is correct, I is incorrect
  46. What are the factors contributing towards the success of India’s software industry ?
    (a) Low wage rate, compared tointernational standards
    (b) Educated middle class and top institutes
    (c) Emphasize in engineering and English as working language
    (d) All of the above
  47. Which of the following organization publishes International Financial
    Statistics and World Investment Report ?
    (a) IMF
    (b) UNCTAD
    (c) World Bank
    (d) Both (a) and (b) above
  48. If spot USD1 = INR 47.30, 2 months forward discount = 40 paise, forward rate should be
    (a) 47.70
    (b) 42.80
    (c) 46.90
    (d) 36.50
  49. Assertion (a) : Licensing may not be the best way to expand overseas.
    Reason (R) : Licensing typically involves each licensee setting up its own
    production operations.
    Codes :
    (a) (a) and (R) are correct
    (b) Both are incorrect
    (c) (a) is correct, (R) is incorrect
    (d) (a) is incorrect, (R) is correct
  50. Match the following :
    List – I List – II
    (Country) (Currency)
    i. Argentina 1) Real
    ii. France 2) Dinar
    iii. Jordan 3) Franc
    iv. Brazil 4) Peso
    Codes :
    i ii iii iv
    (a) 4 1 2 3
    (b) 4 3 2 1
    (c) 2 1 3 4
    (d) 1 2 4 3
  51. For the sanction of credit, IDA observe the following criteria
    i. poverty test, performance test, project test
    ii. population test, performance test, profitability test
    iii. productivity test, profitability test, performance test
    Codes :
    (a) (i) is correct (ii) and (iii) incorrect
    (b) (i) is incorrect (ii) is correct
    (c) (i) and (ii) incorrect (iii) is correct
    (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are incorrect
  52. Under ________ rate system, exchange rate of the currency of a country is determined entirely by market forces such as demand and supply.
    (a) Pegging
    (b) Basket floating
    (c) Managed floating
    (d) Pure floating
  53. Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to membership of Regional Trading Blocks ?
    (a) Vietnam and Cambodia have become member of ASEAN
    (b) Mexico is part of NAFTA
    (c) Nicaragua have become member of OECS
    (d) SAARC countries comprise Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka
  54. Arrange the following attitudes identified by EPRG framework toward internationalisation in sequence
    i. Geocentrism
    ii. Polycentrism
    iii. Ethnocentrism
    iv. Regiocentrism
    Codes :
    (a) i ii iv iii
    (b) i iii iv ii
    (c) iii ii i iv
    (d) ii iii iv i
  55. Match the following institutions with their year of establishment :
    i. World Trade Organisation 1) 1999
    ii. WTO – Trade Policy Review Body 2) 1993
    iii. The Patents (Amendment) Act 3) 1995
    iv. Uruguay Round Negotiations 4) 1997
    Codes :
    i ii iii iv
    (a) 1 3 2 4
    (b) 3 4 1 2
    (c) 2 3 4 1
    (d) 4 2 3 1
  56. ________ agreement of WTO recognizes ‘movement of natural persons’ as one of the models for globalisation.
    (a) GATS
    (b) GATT
    (c) TRIPS
    (d) TRIMS
  57. Which of the following major issue does not relate to the financial aspects of
    exporting ?
    (a) Price of the product
    (b) Method of payment
    (c) Location of production
    (d) Insurance
  58. Assertion (i) : Import of raw material is permitted under EPCG scheme.
    Reason (ii) : DEPB is an export incentive scheme based on the principle of duty
    exemption/drawback.
    Codes :
    (a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
    (b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
    (c) (i) is true, (ii) is false
    (d) (i) is false, (ii) is true
  59. Arrange the following institutions in the order of their inception :
    i. SAFTA
    ii. WTO
    iii. ADB
    iv. IBRD
    Code :
    (a) (i), (iii), (ii) and (iv)
    (b) (iii), (iv), (i) and (ii)
    (c) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (i)
    (d) (iv), (ii), (iii) and (i)
  60. Match the following :
    List – I List – II
    (MNCs) (Alliances with)
    i. Ford 1) Snecma
    ii. Xerox 2) Toshiba
    iii. General Electric Co. 3) Mazda
    iv. Microsoft 4) Fuji
    Code :
    i ii iii iv
    (a) 2 3 1 4
    (b) 3 4 1 2
    (c) 4 2 3 1
    (d) 1 3 4 2
  61. Which of the following is not a capital receipt and, therefore, is not taxable ?
    (a) Income of wasting assets
    (b) Receipt in lieu of source of income
    (c) Receipt on account of circulating capital
    (d) Subsidy given to carry-out business operation
  62. Mr. X is employed in Karnataka Paper Co. at Rs. 6,000 p.m. He is a member of
    the R.P.F. to which he and his employer contribute 14% of his salary. During the
    year, he was given a credit of Rs. 2,100 as interest on R.P.F. balance of Rs. 20,000.
    The amount of annual accretion to be included under the head “salaries” will be
    (a) Rs. 1,080
    (b) Rs. 1,440
    (c) Rs. 2,100
    (d) Rs. 1,640
  63. Assertion (a) : Mr. X is an employee and beneficial owner ofequity shares in Y Ltd.
    (carrying not less than20% voting rights) and, therefore, car facility provided to him is not a taxable perquisite.
    Reasoning (R) : Y Ltd. provides education facility to the children of employee X and,
    therefore, it is a taxable perquisite.
    Codes :
    (a) Both (a) and (R) are correct
    (b) (a) is correct and (R) is incorrect
    (c) (a) is incorrect and (R) is correct
    (d) Both (a) and (R) are incorrect
  64. In respect of which of the following houses owned by Mr. X, the de facto rent is the determinant of the Gross Annual Value (GAV) ?
    Houses Municipal Fair Standard De facto Value Rent Rent Rent
    (Rs.) (Rs.) (Rs.) (Rs.)
    i. House – A 30,000 36,000 30,000 40,000
    ii. House – B 26,000 28,000 35,000 30,000
    iii. House – C 35,000 30,000 36,000 32,000
    iv. House – D 30,000 36,000 40,000 32,000
    Codes :
    (a) (i) and (ii)
    (b) (i) and (iii)
    (c) (iii) and (iv)
    (d) (i) and (iv)
  65. Match the following :
    List – A List – B
    (Loss) (Carrying forward period)
    a. House property i) 4 years loss
    b. Speculation loss ii) No time limit
    c. Unabsorbed iii) Eight years
    d. Short-term and iv) 8 years long-term capital loss
    Codes :
    a b c d
    (a) i ii iii iv
    (b) ii iii iv i
    (c) iii i iv ii
    (d) iv i ii iii
  66. Given that Mr. X’s business income is Rs. 2,90,000, bank interest is Rs. 10,000 and he paid rent @ Rs. 3,500 p.m. for the house occupied for his residence, the allowable deduction under Section 80 GG is
    (a) Rs. 42,000
    (b) Rs. 75,000
    (c) Rs. 27,000
    (d) Rs. 12,000
  67. An individual, who is required to file the return fails to file it before the end of theassessment year, he is liable to paypenalty of
    (a) Rs. 500
    (b) Rs. 2,000
    (c) Rs. 5,000
    (d) Rs. 10,000
  68. Statement (a) : Mr. X is eligible to claim deduction in respect of aggregate interest on deposits in Savings Account U/S 80 TTA.
    Statement (b) : During the previous year 2013 – 14, Mr. X received interest of Rs.10,000 and claimed deduction.
    Codes :
    (a) Both (a) and (b) are correct
    (b) (a) is correct and (b) is incorrect
    (c) (a) is incorrect and (b) is correct
    (d) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect
  69. Of the following non-corporate assesses,to whom the provisions of the alternative
    minimum tax are not applicable w.e.f. the assessment year 2013 – 14 ?
    i. Limited Liability Partnership Firm
    ii. Individual having adjusted total income exceeding Rs. 20 lakhs
    iii. Individual having adjusted total income not exceeding Rs. 20 lakhs
    iv. Artificial juridical person
    Codes :
    (a) (i), (ii) and (iv)
    (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
    (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
    (d) (iii), (ii) and (i)
  70. Match the following :
    List – A List – B
    a. Submission of return of loss i) Sec. 139 (5)
    b. Submission of belated return ii) Sec. 139 (9)
    c. Submission of revised return iii) Sec. 139 (3)
    d. Submission of defective return iv) Sec. 139 (4)
    Codes :
    a b c d
    (a) iv iii ii i
    (b) iv i ii iii
    (c) iii iv i ii
    (d) i ii iii iv
  71. Depreciation u/s 32 is to be calculated at a specified rate on
    (a) Purchase cost of an asset
    (b) Written down value of the asset
    (c) Written down value of the block of assets on the first day of the previous year
    (d) Written down value of the block of assets on the last day of the previous year
  72. If Mr. X transfers self-generated goodwill of business for Rs. 1,75,000 and if the fair
    market value of the same on 1st April 1981 is Rs. 10,000; the amount of capital gains
    chargeable to tax will be
    (a) Rs. 1,75,000
    (b) Rs. 1,65,000
    (c) Rs. 1,85,000
    (d) Nil
  73. Which of the following is (are) not eligible for consideration while computing the gross qualifying amount under Section 80 C ?
    i. Insurance premium paid on own life
    ii. Insurance premium paid on wife’s life
    iii. Insurance premium paid on father’s life
    iv. Insurance premium paid on mother’slife
    Codes :
    (a) only (i)
    (b) only (ii)
    (c) (iii) and (iv)
    (d) (i) and (ii)
  74. Statement (a) : Deemed incomes are not liable for taxation.
    Statement (b) : Mr. X transferred his property to his major son and, therefore, avoided income tax.
    Codes :
    (a) Both (a) and (b) are correct
    (b) (a) is correct and (b) is incorrect
    (c) (a) is incorrect and (b) is correct
    (d) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect
  75. Match the following :
    List – A List – B
    a. Deduction of tax i) Sec. 194 from salary
    b. Deduction of tax ii) Sec. 194 (b) interest on securities
    c. Deduction of tax iii) Sec. 193 from dividends
    d. Deduction of tax iv) Sec. 192 winnings from lotteries
    Codes :
    a b c d
    (a) i ii iv iii
    (b) ii i iv iii
    (c) iv iii i ii
    (d) iii i ii iv

    Answer Key

    1 (b) 2 (b) 3 (d) 4 (a) 5 (c) 6 (a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (c) 12 (c) 13 (c) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16 (d) 17 (a) 18 (b) 19 (a) 20 (b) 21 (d) 22 (c) 23 (a) 24 (c) 25 (d) 26 (a) 27 (b) 28 (a) 29 (a) 30 (d) 31 (d) 32 (b) 33 (a) 34 (c) 35 (b) 36 (d) 37 (b) 38 (c) 39 (b) 40 (d) 41 (a) 42 (b) 43 (c) 44 (c) 45 (a) 46 (d) 47 (d) 48 (c) 49 (a) 50 (b) 51 (a) 52 (d) 53 (c) 54 (c) 55 (b) 56 (a) 57 (c) 58 (d) 59 (b) 60 (b) 61 (b) 62 (d) 63 (c) 64 (a) 65 (d) 66 (d) 67 (c) 68 (a) 69 (a) 70 (c) 71 (d) 72 (a) 73 (c) 74 (a) 75 (c)