Which of the following memory is meant for permanent storage?
(a) RAM
(b) Cache Memory
(c) Secondary Memory
(d) SRAM
Which of the following is not an entry controlled loop?
(a) For
(b) Do while
(c) While
(d) None of the three
Which of the following statements terminate the complete execution of a loop?
(a) Break
(b) Continue
(c) Terminate
(d) None of three
Which of the following blocks is always executed in Java programme?
(a) Try { }
(b) Catch { }
(c) Finally { }
(d) All of three
One function, many definitions, is called:
(a) Function enlargement
(b) Function overloading
(c) Function loading
(d) All of the three
Which of the following is not an integral data type in Java?
(a) Short
(b) Long
(c) Byte
(d) Character
Find out the value of the following :
1/3+1/3.35+1/5.35+1/7.37+…….∞
(a) loge 2
(b) 2 loge 2
(c)1/2 loge 2
(d)1/3 loge 2
Find the number of terms in expansions of (2x—3y)9 :
(a) 9
(b)10
(c)11
(d)12
The number of ways in which 8 distinct toys can be distributed among 5 children is:
(a) 58
(b) 85
(c) 8p5
(d) 40
If nC15=nC8, Find the value of nC21 :
(a) 250
(b) 251
(c) 252
(d) 253
If the roots of the equation x2 – px + q= 0 differ by unity , then:
(a) p2 = 4q
(b) p2 = 4q +1
(c) p2 + 4q -1
(d) None of the three
If x, 2x + 2, 3x +3 are in G.P., then the fourth terms is:
(a) 27
(b) -27
(c) 13.5
(d) -13.5
If 3+1/4(3+d) +1/42(3+2d)+…….to ∞ = 8, then the value of d is:
(a) 9/4
(b) 5/4
(c) 1/4
(d) 8
Find the value of ‘K’ for which the line (K-3)x – (4-K2)y +K2 – 7K+6 =0,x is
(a) K= 4
(b) K= 3
(c) K= 2
(d) K= 6
If a,b,c are in G.P. and x,y are the arithmetic means (A.M.) of a , b and c respectively, then a/x + c/y is equal to:
(a) 2/b
(b) 2/a
(c) 1
(d) 2
If m times of mth term of an A.P. is equal to n times of its nth term of the sum A.P., then (m+n)th term of the A.P. is equal to:
(a) (m+n)
(b) 1
(c) (m-n)
(d) 0
If 17th and 18th terms in the expansion of (2+a) are equal, than value of . ‘a’ is:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
The polar form of complex number 1+3i/1-2i is equal to:
(a) 1/2 (cos 3π/4 + i sin 3π/4
(b) √2 (cos 3π/4 + i sin 3π/4
(c) √2 (cos 5π/4 + i sin 5π/4
(d) 1/2 (cos 5π/4 – i sin 5π/4
The value of sin 50° – sin 70° +sin 10° is:
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 2
(d) ½
An amount of Rs. 1,000 is debited twice in the pass book. When overdraft as per cash book is the starting point:
(a) Rs. 1,000 will be deducted
(b) Rs. 1,000 will be added
(c) Rs. 2,000 will be deducted
(d) Rs. 2,000 will be added
Which one of the following items will be added in debit balance of cash book in the preparation of bank reconciliation statement
(a) Cheques sent to the Bank for collection but not yet collected.
(b) Cheques entered into the cash book but not sent to the bank for collection.
(c) Cheques sent to the Bank for collection but not entered in the cash book.
(d) None of the three
At the time a new partner’s is admitted, revaluation of assets and liabilities is to be made for the:
(a) Benefit of old partners
(b) Benefit of new partners
(c) Mutual benefit of old and new partners
(d) None of the three
Joint life policy reserve account is to be transferred to:
(a) All the partners in their old profit – loss sharing ratio
(b) Continuing partners in their new-ratio
(c) The capital account of retiring partner
(d) None of the three
In the absence any provision in the partnership deed, the partnership Act provides for:
(a) Interest on capital
(b) Interest on drawings
(c) Interest on advances
(d) None of the three
Discount on issue of debentures is:
(a) Revenue loss
(b) Revenue expenditure
(c) Capital loss
(d) Capital expenditure
When own debentures are cancelled, any profit on cancellation is transferred to:
(a) Profit and loss account
(b) General Reserve
(c) Debenture Redemption Reserve
(d) Capital Reserve
A company has to redeem redeemable preference shares of the value of Rs. 1,00,000 at a premium of 10% for which the company has issued 5000 equity shares of Rs. 10 each at a premium of 20%. The amount to be transferred to capital redemption reserve account would be:
(a) Rs. 1,00,000
(b) Rs. 50,000
(c) Rs. 1,10,000
(d) Rs. 40,000
Bajaj Sales Ltd. issues 20000 equity shares of Rs. 20 each to the public. The amount is payable as:
(a) On application Rs. 4 per share
(b) On Allotment Rs. 4 per share
(c) On First call Rs. 6 per share
(d) On Final call Rs. 6 per share
All money has been received on shares. Only one shareholder who has 200 shares could not pay allotment money and his shares have been forfeited before making first call. Forfeited shares have been re-issued at Rs. 18 fully paidup. What is the amount of capital reserve?
(a) Rs. 800
(b) Rs. 400
(c) Rs. 1,200
(d) Rs. 200
A company issues a share of Rs. 10 on which Rs. 8 is calledup and a shareholder has not paid the call of Rs. 2. The amount credited to share capital in respect of such shared will be:
(a) Rs. 10
(b) Rs. 8
(c) Rs. 6
(d) Rs. 2
On 1st January, 2015 Mohan purchased a machine for a sum of Rs. 1,00,000 and it is estimated that its life will be three years. He decided to write off depreciation at 40% on diminishing value of the asset. What is the residual value at The end of third year?
(a) Rs. 20,600
(b) Rs. 2,160
(c) Rs. 14,400
(d) Rs. 36,000
Which one of the following is not a method of depreciation?
(a) Depletion method
(b) Replacement cost method
(c) Insurance policy method
(d) None of the three
Drawing by the proprietor would:
(a) Reduce both assets and owner’s equity
(b) Reduce assets and increase liability
(c) Reduce owner’s equity and increase liabilities
(d) Increase owner’s equity and liability
Purchases are equal to:
(a) Cost of goods sold + Opening stock – closing stock
(b) Cost of goods sold – Opening stock + Closing stock
(c) Cost of goods sold + Opening stock
(d) Cost of goods sold + Closing stock
Goods worth Rs. 2000 returned by Shyam were taken into stock but no entry was passed. It is an error of:
(a) Accounting
(b) Principle
(c) Omission
(d) Compensatory
First industrial policy of free India was announced in the year:
(a) 1947
(b) 1948
(c) 1951
(d) 1956
The headquarter of GST Council is located at:
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Mumbai
(c) New Delhi
(d) Hyderabad
The Indian Income Tax is :
(a) Direct and proportional
(b) Indirect and proportional
(c) Direct and progressive
(d) Indirect and progressive
What does a government budget show?
(a) Actual expenditure and actual revenues
(b) Estimated expenditure and actual revenues
(c) Estimated expenditure and estimated revenues
(d) Actual expenditure and estimated revenues
Fiscal policy is related to:
(a) Money supply in the economy
(b) Regulation of the banking system
(c) Planning for economic development
(d) Government’s revenue and expenditure
The minimum percentage of a bank’s total deposits which is required to be kept with the Reserve Bank of India, is called:
(a) Cash Reserve Ratio
(b) Repo Rate
(c) Reverse Repo Rate
(d) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
Which bank does not deal directly with the public?
(a) State Bank of India
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Bank of India
(d) HDFC Bank
Which one is not the instrument of monetary policy?
(a) Bank Rate
(b) Government Spending
(c) Open Market Operations
(d) Selective Credit Control
Which of the following is not concerned with banking organization?
(a) Bank Rate
(b) Credit Creation
(c) Fiscal Deficit
(d) Cash Reserve Ratio
A budget which is formulated on future assumption and not the past records, is called:
(a) Variable Budget
(b) Zero – Base Budget
(c) Master Budget
(d) Labour Budget
At Break-even point, there stands a situation of:
(a) Ideal profits
(b) Ideal costs
(c) Ideal production
(d) None of the three
“All should make efforts for achieving the common goals of the organization.” This principle is known as:
(a) Principle of Unity of Command
(b) Principle of personal contact
(c) Principle of Span of Control
(d) Principle of Unity of Direction
Who has called Direction as the ‘ Heart of Administration’?
(a) Theo Haimann
(b) Dimock
(c) F.W. Taylor
(d) Henri Fayol
Which of the following is not an advantage of co-ordination ?
(a) Higher production
(b) Higher Absenteeism
(c) Higher Productivity
(d) Lesser Strikes
Which reference to external co-ordination, find out the odd form the following:
(a) Investors
(b) Customers
(c) Employees
(d) Society
Which form the following is not an element of direction?
(a) Guidance
(b) Order
(c) Responsibility
(d) Supervision
Which from the following is not a feature of a formal organization ?
(a) Strict Rules
(b) Defined Structure
(c) Born Spontaneously
(d) Strict discipline
In Formal organization, promotion is:
(a) From Top to Bottom
(b) From Bottom to Top
(c) From Middle-Top to Middle-Bottom
(d) None of the three
“Take away our factories, take away our trade. Our avenue of transport, our money, leave nothing but our organization and in four years we shall have re-established ourselves.” This statement is of:
(a) Mc Farland
(b) Dale Carnegi
(c) William R. Spreigal
(d) Andrew Carnegi
When the would ‘organization is used as verb, it means:
(a) Structure
(b) Function
(c) Process
(d) Company
Planning is:
(a) Job Oriented
(b) Goal Oriented
(c) Government Oriented
(d) Public Oriented
A plan made by the foreman in a factory is an example of:
(a) Middle Level Plan
(b) Low Level Plan
(c) Top Level Plan
(d) Top – Middle Level Plan
In the planning process. ‘ follow up’ is:
(a) First step
(b) Middle step
(c) Last step
(d) None of the three
With reference to significance of planning, which form the following is not at all correct?
(a) Minimization of wastage
(b) Check on Hasty Decision
(c) Elimination of Risk
(d) Control on costs
The major provisions for employees welfare are contained in:
(a) The Factories Act, 1948
(b) The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(c) The Employees Compensation Act, 1923
(d) None of the three
Which of the following is/are ‘Core Industries’?
(a) Electricity
(b) Petroleum Products
(c) Coal
(d) All of the above
In India, Liberal Industrial Policy was adopted in the year of:
(a) 1948
(b) 1956
(c) 1991
(d) 2014
According to the Industrial Disputes, Act, an industrial dispute may arise:
(a) Between employer and employer
(b) Between employer and employee
(c) Between employee and employee
(d) All of three
Which of the following is not a characteristics of the Capitalist Economic System?
(a) Right to own Private Property
(b) Existence of Competition
(c) Unplanned Economy
(d) Central Planning
Agriculture Price Commission and food Corporation of India were established in:
(a) 1960
(b) 1965
(c) 1969
(d) 1971
In an economy, the sectors are classified into public and private on the basis of:
(a) Employment conditions
(b) Nature of economic activities
(c) Ownership of enterprises
(d) Use of raw materials
The maximum period for the payment of wages is:
(a) One month
(b)Two month
(c) Three month
(d) Four month
Who developed the concept of disguised unemployment?
(a) John Keynes
(b) Amartya Sen
(c) John Robinson
(d) Alfred Marshall
Where is the Central Rice Research Institute located?
(a) Bangaluru
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Kanpur
(d) Cuttack
The fertile land between two rivers is called:
(a) Wasterland
(b) Doab
(c) Terai
(d) None of three
A ‘Closed economy’ is an economy in which :
(a) The money supply is fully controlled
(b) Deficit financing takes place.
(c) Only exports take place.
(d) Neither export nor import take place.
The Korba coalfield is located in:
(a) Orissa
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Bihar
(d) Assam
When was the first National Forest Policy by the Government of India?
(a) 1942
(b) 1947
(c) 1952
(d) 2001
In India, The stake known for its sandalwood is:
(a) Assam
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala
(d) West Bengal
Which is called ‘Child of Distress’?
(a) Trust
(b) Trade Association
(c) Amalgamation
(d) Cartel
Which reference to forms of business combination, find out the odd from the following :
(a) Trust
(b) Holding Company
(c) Merger
(d) Cartel
‘Chamber of Commerce” is an example of:
(a) Simple Association
(b) Compound Association
(c) Incomplete Consolidation
(d) Complete Consolidation
If a cement factory, a steel mill, a sugar mill and a leather firm combine together, it is an example of:
(a) Vertical Combination
(b) Horizontal Combination
(c) Diagonal Combination
(d) Circular Combination
Which form the following is not correct with reference to disadvantages of vertical combination?
(a) Excessive Mutual Dependence
(b) Minimization of Competition
(c) Limited Scope of Application
(d) Ill Effect of change in Fashion
Which from the following is not a correct statement?
(a) Line Organization is more suitable for small units.
(b) In Line organization there is more possibility of confusion.
(c) In line organization the order flows from top to bottom.
(d) Line organization is the simplest form of organization.
Line organization has many advantages except the following?
(a) Quick Decisions
(b) Better Control
(c) Very Expensive
(d) Prompt Communication
With reference to Line& Staff Organization, the staff is:
(a) Fully responsible
(b) Partially responsible in some situations
(c) Partially responsible in all situations
(d) Not responsible at all
Which from the following is not a staff position ?
(a) Legal Advisor
(b) Personal Assistant
(c) General Manager
(d) None of the three
Which form the following is also known as ‘Vertical Organisation’?
(a) Line & Staff Organization
(b) Line Organization
(c) Functional Organization
(d) Committee Organization
As per the companies Act, 1956, Every company shall hold the first meeting of the board of directors within how many days of the date of its incorporation:
(a) 30 Days
(b) 60 Days
(c) 90 Days
(d) 120 Days
Who form the following regularly attends the office of a company?
(a) Share holders
(b) Board of Directors
(c) Managing Directors
(d) All of the three
Which form the following is not a feature of a partnership firm?
(a) Existance of Business
(b) Sharing of profits
(c) Free Transfer of share
(d) Unlimited Liability
“Uncertain Span of Life” is a feature of:
(a) Co-operative society
(b) Sole Proprietorship
(c) Government company
(d) Private company
With reference to ‘ Flexibility of operations’ the most suitable form of business organization is:
(a) Sole Proprietorship
(b) Partnership
(c) Public company
(d) Private company
From the following which is the reason for creating special purpose vehicle?
(a) Risk sharing
(b) Asset transfer
(c) Property sale
(d) All of the above
At the time of establishment of the Regional Rural Banks, the Authorised share capital of each Bank Was:
(a) One crore
(b) Two crore
(c) Five crore
(d) Ten crore
In the paid up capital of a Regional Rural Bank, the share of the sponsored Bank is:
(a) 50%
(b) 35%
(c) 25%
(d) 15%
Which Commercial Bank has merged with the Punjab National Bank Recently?
(a) Syndicate Bank
(b) Corporation Bank
(c) Andhra Bank
(d) United Bank of India
Which form the following is not the function of a Central Bank?
(a) Issue of Notes
(b) Government Advisor
(c) Creation of Credit
(d) Regulation of foreign Exchange
Who is colled the ‘Mother of Central Banks’ ?
(a) Bank of france
(b) Bank of England
(c) Bank of Russia
(d) Bank of Japan
The full form of ‘RTGS’ is :
(a) Regional time gross settlement
(b) Real time gross settlement
(c) Regional time Google settlement
(d) Real Time Google Settlement
Which from the following is the oldest theory of determination of money value?
(a) State Theory of Money
(b) Income, Saving & Investment theory
(c) Commodity Theory of Money
(d) The Cambridge Equation
With reference to effects of inflation, which from the following is not true?
(a) Increase in Taxation
(b) Increase in Hoarding
(c) Increase in Savings
(d) Increase in Employment
Who has said, “ The soul of currency is not in the material of the units, but in the legal ordinances which regulate their use.”?
(a) George Fredrick Knapp
(b) J.S. Mill
(c) G. Crowther
(d) None of the three
Which is not the merit of Paper standard?
(a) Economical
(b) Homogeneity
(c) Convenient
(d) Non Elastic
The Fixed Finduciary system was adopted by England In :
(a) 1840
(b) 1844
(c) 1850
(d) None of three
Which form the following is not the characteristic of Gold Parity Standard?
(a) Centralized Gold Reserve
(b) Help From International Monetary fund
(c) Fixation of Exchange Rates
(d) Convertibility into Gold
Who was the first to talk about ‘Symmetallism’?
(a) Pigou
(b) Marshall
(c) Gresham
(d) Keynes
Which country was the first to adopt standard?
(a) America
(b) Great Britain
(c) France
(d) Germany
Which of the following is not a method of estimating national income?
(a) Consumption Savings method
(b) Income Received Method
(c) Commodity Service Method
(d) Investment Method
Gross Domestic product (GDP) at constant prices is called:
(a) Real GDP
(b) Nominal GDP
(c) Real National Income
(d) Nominal per Capita Income
The concept of kink demand curve has been propounded by…….
(a) Paul sweezy
(b) A. Ferguson
(c) Alfred Marshall
(d) J.R. Hicks
In the long run, perfect competitive firm……..
(a) Earns super economic profit
(b) Incurs an economic loss
(c) Makes zero economic profit
(d) None of the three
Which of the following is not an attribute of monopoly?
(a) Single Seller
(b) Super Profit in Long Run
(c) Free Entry and Exit of the firms
(d) Independent price policy
The concept of Monopolistic Competition was presented by……….
(a) J.R. Hicks
(b) E.H. Chamberlin
(c) G.J.Stigler
(d) P.A.Samuelson
IN a very short period, in determination of market price:
(a) Demand has more impact
(b) Supply has more impact.
(c) Both the demand and supply have their impact.
(d) None of the three
In which kind of market, a firm is a price taker?
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Monopolistic competition
(d) Oligopoly
In the market advertising expenses are the least?
(a) Duopoly
(b) Monopoly
(c) Monopolistic competition
(d) Oligopoly
In the field of consumption ‘ Law of Equi-Marginal Utility’ is also known as……
(a) Law of Maximum satisfaction
(b) Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility
(c) Law of Supply
(d) Consumer’s Surplus
Cardinal Approach of utility is given by…….
(a) Alfred Marshall
(b) J.R. Hicks
(c) K.E. Boulding
(d) A.C. Pigou
Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility that as more and more units of a commodity is consumed, marginal utility:
(a) Begins to increase
(b) Begins to decrease
(c) Remains constant
(d) Becomes zero
Consumer’s surplus is based on…………
(a) Diminishing Marginal Utility
(b) Law of Demand
(c) Indifference Curve Approach
(d) None of the three
Demand curve slope downward from left to right because of :
(a) Income effect
(b) Substitution effect
(c) Diminishing Marginal Utility
(d) All of the three
Who has emphasized the situation of wantlessness in Economics?
(a) J.K. Mehta
(b) J.B. Say
(c) David Ricardo
(d) Adam Smith
Which one of the following is a merit for the investors when investing in debentures?
(a) Stable return
(b) Fixed maturity
(c) Protected by Debenture trust deed
(d) All of the three
Listing of dept securities is:
(a) Mandatory
(b) Voluntary
(c) Mandatory and voluntary both
(d) None of the three
Deep Discount bonds are also called:
(a) Pure Discount Bonds
(b) Zero Interest Bonds
(c) Zero Coupon Bonds
(d) All of the three
Perpetual Bonds have:
(a) Indefinite life
(b) Definite life
(c) Indefinite life and definite life both
(d) None of the three
Which one of the following is a feature of Treasury Bills?
(a) Negotiable
(b) Absence of default risk
(c) Eligibility for inclusion in Statutory Liquidity Ratio
(d) All of the three
Which one is not a merit of ‘Treasury Bills”?
(a) Safety
(b) Liquidity
(c) Poor Yield
(d) Source of short-term fund
Which one of the following is a feature of commercial depostis?
(a) Marketability
(b) Liquidity
(c) Negotiability
(d) All of the above
The minimum denomination of commercial deposits is:
(a) Rs. 1,00,000
(b) Rs. 2,00,000
(c) Rs. 1,50,000
(d) Rs. 5,00,000
Commercial papers are:
(a) Fully secured
(b) Partly secured
(c) Unsecured
(d) None of the three
The maximum maturity period for which the commercial issued is:
(a) 3 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 9 months
(d) 12 months
A security should be bought when:
(a) Market price is less than its book value
(b) Market price is more than its book value
(c) Market price is equal to its book value
(d) None of the three
Regulations of debt securities are issued by:
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) SEBI
(c) Central Government
(d) Stock Exchange
Who is not a player of primary market?
(a) Marchant Bankers
(b) Underwriters
(c) Registrar to Issue
(d) Speculator
Which one of the following is a malpractice in securities market?
(a) Price Rigging
(b) Insider Trading
(c) Delay in Settlement
(d) All of the three
The Functions of SEBI includes:
(a) Registration of Merchant Banker
(b) Regulation of Primary and Secondary Markets
(c) Protection of investors
(d) All of the three
The main objective of Common Size Statement of Profit and Loss is:
(a) To present change in assets and liabilities
(b) To judge the financial soundness.
(c) To establish relationship between revenue from operations and other items of statement of profit and Loss.
(d) All of the three
If a machinery is purchased how will it be treated while preparing the cash flow statement as per AS-3 (Revised):
(a) Purchasing Activity
(b) Investing Activity
(c) Financing Activity
(d) Operating Activity
Which items are not added to the net profit for calculating cash from operating Activities?
(i) Interest and divided received
(ii) Transfer to reserve
(iii) Discount on Issue of shares
(iv) Loss on sale of fixed assets
(a) i only
(b) i and ii
(c) i, ii, and iii
(d) i, ii, iii, and iv
Which one of the following is not a cash outflow?
(a) Increase in stock
(b) Increase in prepaid expenses
(c) Increase in outstanding expenses
(d) Increase in bills receivable
Debt-Equity ratio is a sub-part of:
(a) Short term Solvency ratio
(b) Long term Solvency Ratio
(c) Debtors turnover ratio
(d) Inventory Turnover ratio
When the ration is low, the firm is said to have favourable indication. This applies to which ratio :
(a) Inventory Turnover Ratio
(b) Operating Profit Ratio
(c) Debtors Turnover Ratio
(d) Operating Ratio
Which one of the following activities relate to financing activities?
(a) Cash receipts from royalties
(b) Cash payments for purchasing fixed assets
(c) Payment of dividend
(d) Cash receipts from sale of fixed assets
Cash from operations will be if:
Total Sales Rs. 5,00,000, Credit Sales Rs. 2,25,000, Total Purchase Rs. 2,48,000, Credit Purchases Rs. 1,08,000, Cash Operating Expenses Rs. 40,000
(a) Rs. 1,30,000
(b) Rs. 1,90,000
(c) Rs. 2,12,000
(d) Rs. 95,000
Cash payment to and on behalf of employees is :
(a) Financing activity
(b) Investing activity
(c) Operating activity
(d) None of the three
What is gross profit ratio ?
Gross Sales Rs. 7,60,000
Sales Returns Rs. 40,000
Net Profit after interest Rs. 40,000
Indirect Expenses Rs. 60,000
Interest paid on debentures Rs. 20,000
(a) 16.67%
(b) 12.22%
(c) 13.88%
(d) 24.44%
Current ratio is 2 : 5n , current liabilities Rs. 25,000: the amount of current assets will be:
(a) Rs. 62,500
(b) Rs. 12,500
(c) Rs. 10,000
(d) Rs. 15,000
Which one of the following statement is true ?
(a) Liquidity ratios measures long-term solvency of a concern.
(b) Solvency ratio is a part of long-term solvency.
(c) Stock is part of liquid assets.
(d) Gross profit ratio measures overall profitability of a concern.
Vertical analysis uses financial data of a company for:
(a) Several years
(b) One year
(c) Two years
(d) None of the above
Comparative statement are the form of:
(a) Horizontal analysis
(b) Vertical analysis
(c) Horizontal analysis vertical analysis both
(d) None of the three
Horizontal analysis is known as:
(a) Dynamic analysis
(b) Structural analysis
(c) Static analysis
(d) All of the three
