- Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a business environment?
(a) Complexity
(b) Dynamism
(c) Certainly
(d) Inter relatedness - Which of the following is an important form of business environment analysis?
(a) Swot analysis
(b) Regression analysis
(c) Correlation analysis
(d) Descriptive analysis - The vision and mission statement of a company are part of which component of the business environment ?
(a) Micro environment
(b) Macro environment
(c) Internal environment
(d) Regulatory environment - According to Michael Porter’s model of structural analysis of industries, the state of competition in an industry depends on____basic competitive forces.
(a) Five
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Two - The suppliers and distributors of a firm a part of its:
(a) Macro environment
(b) Micro environment
(c) Internal environment
(d) Global environment - In India the planning commission has now been replaced by:
(a) NITI Asyaog
(b) CSO
(c) TERI
(d) MGNREGA - The only organization that deals with rules of trades between nations is:
(a) GATT
(b) WTO
(c) ASEAN
(d) NATO - In the context of excellent brands
(a) Ownership of excellent brands
(b) Reduction in prices announced by a competitor
(c) High cost structure
(d) Emergency of a new low cost technology that promises to increase customer outreach - Which of the following economic policies is likely to benefit domestic companies?
(a) A policy to increase the corporate tax rates
(b) A policy to open up hither to restricted to foreign competition
(c) A policy to increase tariff on certain imported finished products
(d) A policy to curtail government spending on infrastructure in order to reign in fiscal deficit - Which of the following is an important feature of the industrial policy, 1991?
(a) Expansion of the public sector
(b) Setting up of heavy and machine-building industries by the government
(c) Establishment of a large and growing co-operating sector
(d) Abolishing of industrial licensing for all projects expects for a short list of industries - Under which of the following methods of privatization, does the government authorized private players to deliver certain services in designated geographical areas?
(a) Divestiture of ownership by the government
(b) Franchising
(c) Contracting
(d) Denationalization - Prior to the economic liberalization of 1991, the Indian Government had adopted a strategy of:
(a) Import substitution
(b) Globalisation
(c) Unrestricted imports
(d) Free labour markets - Which of the following is a distinct feature of foreign portfolio investment (FPI)?
(a) The period is investment is very long term.
(b) It involves very high investment of capital.
(c) It confers the right of management and control in the firm in which investment is made.
(d) It is volatile in nature. - Which is the following statements is incorrect with respect to foreign direct investment (FDI)?
(a) FDI may lead to crowding out effect by stimulating exit of domestic enterprises.
(b) A country with a large market demand as measured by per capita GDP will attract a larger FDI.
(c) FDI is a passive form of investment
(d) Arbitrary and non-transparent regulatory environment discourages FDI. - Which of the following is not an objective of privatization?
(a) To improve the performance of public sector enterprises
(b) To reduce the administrative burden on the state.
(c) To transform the economy from a market economy to a command economy.
(d) To distribute ownership of enterprise more widely in the population at large. - Which of the following is not an essential condition for the success of privatization?
(a) Commitment from the political leadership
(b) Existence of multiple private players to replace a government monopoly
(c) Clear linkages between the cost of a service and benefits from the service and benefits from the minds of the consumer
(d) Interest from foreign institutional investors in the bidding process for the public enterprise - A company manufacturing gym equipment has seen a steady increase in the demand for its products over the past decade due to increase gym enrolment in metro cities as well as tier-ii cities. This is an example of which of the following factors affecting the macro environment of a business?
(a) Technological factors
(b) Political and legal factors
(c) Social-cultural and demographic factors
(d) Ecological and physical environment factors - EDI stands for_______.
(a) Electronic data interchange.
(b) Engineering data interchange.
(c) Electronic deal interchange.
(d) Exceptional data interchange. - Which one of the following statement is not considered as a merit of E-commerce?
(a) It can conduct business 24 hours*7*365 days
(b) It creates new markets easily
(c) It does not facilities globalization of business.
(d) It reduces cost of buyers. - Understanding the ___environment is important for a business it defines attitude of the people to business and work and whether people are ambitions or complacent.
(a) Political
(b) Economic
(c) Technological
(d) Cultural - Which of the following is not an example of liberalization measures by the government?
(a) Abolishing industrial licensing requirement for most industries
(b) Levying an extra ‘supar tax” on investments by foreign portfolio investors
(c) Simplifying the procedure for imports and exports
(d) Allowing industries freedom in determination of prices for goods and services - Managerial Economics, as a discipline, combines economic theory with:
(a) Finance theory
(b) Operations research
(c) Scientific method
(d) Managerial practice - SCM stands for______.
(a) Supply channel management
(b) Supply chain management
(c) Supply chain manager
(d) Study chain management - A decline in price of a product by 5% leads to an increase in quantity demanded by 20% The elasticity of demand is:
(a) 4
(b)3
(c)2
(d)1 - EFT stands for:
(a) Electronic flow transfer
(b) Engine flow transfer
(c) Electronic funds tranfer
(d) Easy funds transfer - Which of the following E-Commerce business model is also called as reserve auction or demand collection model?
(a) B2E
(b) B2C
(c) C2D
(d) C2B - ____is an organization that maintains one or more gateway computers and provides internet access facility to other user by allowing them to connect their computers to its own gateway computers by using a modem.
(a) HTTP
(b) ISP
(c) URL
(d) HTML - Which of the following E-commerce business model is also called as reverse auction or demand collection model?
(a) John Maynard Keynes
(b) Paul Samuelson
(c) Adam Smith
(d) Alfred Marshall - Which of the following is not an explanatory variable in the demand function of a product?
(a) Advertisement expenditure incurred by the manufacture
(b) Price of substitute products
(c) Income of the consumer
(d) Capital structure of the manufacture - Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to Giffen Goods?
(a) All inferior goods can be termed as Giffen goods.
(b) Price and demand are directly related for Giffen goods.
(c) Giffen goods are generally inferior goods.
(d) Giffen goods have no close substitutes. - Which of the following is not a characteristic of an economic boom?
(a) Rising employment and real wages
(b) Increased capacity utilization by companies
(c) Rising government tax revenues
(d) De-stocking and heavy discounting by companies - The demand curve of a ______firm is identical with the market demand curve for the product.
(a) Perfectly competitive
(b) Monopolist
(c) Oligopolistic
(d) Monopolistic - Which of the following statements is true with respect to the utility function?
(i) The marginal utility curve slopes downwards.
(ii) The average utility curve falls faster than the marginal utility curve.
(iii) The total utility curve rises at a diminishing rate.
(iv) The total utility curve rises upwards when marginal utility negative.
(a) Both i and ii
(b) Both ii and iii
(c) Both i and iii
(d) Both ii and iv - A situation in which a firm bases its market policy, in part, on the expected behavior of a few close rivals is defined as:
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Oligopoly
(c) Monopoly
(d) Monopolistic competition - Cross elasticity of demand is positive in case of goods which are:
(a) Not related to each other
(b) Perfect substitutes
(c) Substitutes
(d) Complements of each other - Which of the following is a valid difference between perfect competition and monopolistic competition?
(a) There are a large number of seller under perfect competition and a small number of sellers under monopolistic competition.
(b) Sellers under perfect competition have zero monopoly power while those under monopolistic competition have complete monopoly power.
(c) Price elasticity of demads is infinite under perfect competition while demand is inelastic under monopolistic competition.
(d) Perfect competition results in optimum utillsation of capacity while monopolistic results in sub-optimal capacity uitlisation - In a perfectly competitive market.
(a) A firm average revenue and marginal revenue will be equal to the price.
(b) A firm’s slope of the marginal revenue curve is twice that of the average revenue curve
(c) A firm’s total revenue curve is inverted
(d) A firm’s marginal revenue curve cuts the marginal cost curve from below - Rigid or sticky prices explained by the ‘kinked demand curve’ theory are observed.
(a) In perfectly competitive markets
(b) Under monopoly
(c) In monopolistic industries
(d) In oligopolistic industries - ____was created to translate the words user types in into the IP address of the site.
(a) Internet service providers(ISP)
(b) Domain Name System
(c) Link Layer
(d) Network Layer - A cab aggregator company has estimated the supply curve for taxi cabs in the city as:
S = 200 + 450 P – 12 R
Where ‘S’ is the supply of cabs, ‘P’ is the price per kilometer, and ‘R’ is the cost of regulatory compliance per cab.
If the price per kilometer is Rs. 20 and the regulatory cost per cab is Rs. 50, then the number of cabs that will enter the market is:
S = 200 +450P -12R
(a) 9200
(b) 8600
(c) 10225
(d) 7742 - Based on the following table, the equilibrium market price will be:
Price in Rs. (rupees) Demand (units per annum) Supply (Units per annum)
10 1000 100
20 900 200
30 700 400
40 500 500
50 300 700
60 100 900
(a) Rs. 20
(b) Rs. 30
(c) Rs. 40
(d) Rs. 50 - Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to determinants of supply?
(a) Perishable goods and artistic good are exceptions to the law of supply
(b) Changes in technology can impact the supply of a product
(c) Supply is not influenced by the business goal of the firm
(d) Government regulations affect the supply of a product - The demand curve faced by a price taking firm in a perfectly competitive industry is:
(a) Horizontal in shape
(b) Vertical in shape
(c) Downward sloping
(d) Kinded in shape - If a high net worth individual, who is an automobile enthusiast, has the following utility structure, his average utility, and marginal utility after buying the fourth car would be:
Nunber of cars Total utility
1 20
2 77
3 90
4 96
(a) 38.5 and 27, respectively
(b) 24 and 6, respectively
(c) 35 and 16, respectively
(d) 11 and 44, respectively - Which of the following conditions will not make price discrimination possible?
(a) Seller has control over the supply of the product
(b) Seller is able to divide the market into two or more markets.
(c) Price elasticity of demand for the product is different in each market segment
(d) Arbitrage between low-priced market and high – priced market is possible - The relationship between two figures expressed numerically is called a:
(a) Trend
(b) System
(c) Ratio
(d) Regression - Unless specifically identifiable, cash flows from taxes on income:
(a) Must be classified as ‘cash flow from operating Activities’
(b) Must be classified as ‘ cash flow from investing activities’
(c) Must be classified as ‘cash flow from financing activities’
(d) Need not be classified under any specific head - For the purpose of calculating return on investment, operating profit is calculated as which of the following options?
(a) Operating profit = Net profit + Fixed cost – Non – fixed expenses
(b) Operating profit = Net profit + Investment income – Operating expenses
(c) Operating profit = Net profit + Current expenses – Non – Current income
(d) Operating profit = Net profit + Non-operating expense – Non – operating income - A high______ is not considered desirable for a business.
(a) Inventory turnover ratio
(b) Debt-equity ratio
(c) Fixed assets turnover ratio
(d) Gross profit ratio - Which of the following is true with respect to the direct method of computing cash flows from operating activities?
(a) Net profit or net loss is used as the base to arrive at cash flow from operating activities.
(b) It requires adjustments for non-operating income and Non –operating expenses.
(c) It requires adjustments for changes in current assets and current liabilities.
(d) The difference between cash receipts from operating revenue and cash payments for operating expenses represents the net cash flow from operating activities. - Which of the following types of analysis of financial statements is very useful for long-term trend analysis and planning?
(a) Vertical analysis
(b) Internal analysis
(c) Horizontal analysis
(d) External analysis - In which type of analysis of financial statements is each item in the financial statements expressed as a percentage or ratio to the total of the items?
(a) Common size financial statements
(b) Comparative financial statements
(c) Trend analysis
(d) Ratio analysis - _______is the part of the TCP/IP protocol and permits users to transfer files from the server to their client machine & versa.
(a) IMAP
(b) POP
(c) FTP
(d) SSL - Complete the given marginal cost equation.
Sales – Profit = Variable Cost +_____
(a) Marginal cost
(b) Contribution
(c) Standard cost
(d) Fixed cost - ABC Ltd. sold a machinery on which accumulated depreciation was Rs. 44,000. The opening and closing balance of provision for depreciation A/c was Rs. 6,20,00 and Rs.7,40,000, Respectively. What is the amount of depreciation charged/written back for the year?
(a) Depreciation charged Rs. 76,00
(b) Depreciation written back Rs. 76,00
(c) Depreciation charged Rs. 1,20,000
(d) Depreciation charged Rs. 1,64,000 - ABC Ltd. currently has sales of Rs. 25 lakhs with a capital employed of Rs. 10 lakh. The selling price of its products is Rs. 50 each and the operating cost is Rs. 40 Each. Assuming that there are no non-operating incomes or expenses , the return on investment for ABC Ltd. is:
(a) 50%
(b) 30%
(c) 25%
(d) 15% - PQR Ltd. has total sales of Rs. 45 lakh in a year with a P/V ratio of 35%. If the fixed cost is Rs. 7 lakh, then the margin of safety is:
(a) Rs. 25,00,000
(b) Rs. 20,00,000
(c) Rs. 15,75,000
(d) Rs. 29,25,000 - PQ Ltd.currently has sales of Rs. 45 lakhs with a gross profit ratio of 20% . the opening and closing inventory is Rs. 4 laksh and Rs. 8 lakhs respectively, if the gross profit ratio is double with other items remaining constant, than the inventory turnover ratio will:
(a) Remain constant at 7.5 times
(b) Increase from 4.5 times to 3.375 times
(c) Decrease from 6 times to 4.5 times
(d) Decrease from 9 times to 6.75 times - Which of the following will be classified under ‘ cash flow investing activities’ for PQR Cinemas Lts.?
(i) Cash receipts from sale of online and offline tickets
(ii) Cash proceeds from issuing foreign currency convertible bonds.
(iii) Cash proceeds from sale of equity stake held in a film distribution company, ABC Pvt. Ltd.
(iv) Cash payments made to acquire old cinema halls in Tier-II cities.
(a) Both i and ii
(b) Both ii and iii
(c) Both iii and iv
(d) Both i and iv - ABC Ltd. has declared a dividend of Rs. 12per share and the shares of face value Rs. 10 each are traded in the market at Rs. 480 Each. The dividend yield for ABC Ltd. is:
(a) 2.50%
(b) 25%
(c) 120%
(d) 2.08% - ABC Ltd. maintains a gross profit ratio of 25% and an inventory turnover ratio of 5 times if its gross profit for the year is Rs. 8 lakh and closing inventory is higher than opening inventory by Rs. 20,000, than the value of closing inventory is:
(a) Rs. 4,70.000
(b) Rs. 6.30,000
(c) Rs. 4,90,000
(d) Rs. 6,50,000 - A product is sold at Rs. 75 per unit with a variable cost of Rs. 66 per unit. Current sales are 10,000 units. Fixed costs are Rs. 1,26,000. The break-even sales for the products is:
(a) Rs. 7,50,000
(b) Rs. 10,50,000
(c) Rs. 9,00,000
(d) Rs. 12,60,000 - ABC Ltd. currently has sales of Rs. 25 lakh with a capital employes of Rs. 10 lakhs. The selling price of its products is Rs. 50 each and the operating cost is Rs. 40each . Assuming that the company manages to reduce the operating cost per unit by Rs. 5 each, there is no change in sales or capital employed and there are no non-operating incomes or expenses the return on investment for ABC Ltd. will.
(a) Decrease from 50% to 30%
(b) Increase from 30% to 45%
(c) Decrease from 45% to 15%
(d) Increase from 50% to 75% - HTTP stands for_______.
(a) Hyper text transfer protocol
(b) High text transfer protocol
(c) Hyper transfer text protocol
(d) Hyper text transfer Promotion - Which of the following transactions will cause a change in the net working capital?
(a) Cash receipts from customers amounting to Rs. 55 lakh
(b) Cash received from sale of old machinery Rs.3 lakh
(c) Payments to suppliers amounting to Rs. 37 lakh
(d) Purchase made on credit Rs. 85 lakh - XYZ Ltd. needs to sell 8000 units per annum in order to break-even if the selling price and variable cost of its products are Rs. 80 and Rs. 65, respectively then the fixed cost per annum for XYZ Ltd, is:
(a) Rs. 1,20,000
(b) Rs. 6,40,000
(c) Rs. 5,20,000
(d) Rs. 1,200 - XYZ Ltd. needs to sell 8000 units per annum in order to break-even . the current selling price and cost of its product are Rs. 80 and Rs. 65, Respectively if the selling price and variable cost to increase by 10% and 20%, Respectively, without any changes in the annual fixed costs, the new break-even point (in units) will be:
(a) 8000 units
(b) 10000 units
(c) 9000 units
(d) 12000 units - The main objective of financial management is now considered to be:
(a) Profit maximisation
(b) Wealth maximisation
(c) Revenue maximisation
(d) Cost minimization - Which of the following is concerned with the long range planning of allocation of funds among competing investment proposals?
(a) Working capital management
(b) Capital budgeting
(c) Capital structure decision
(d) Dividend policy - Which of the following is a spontaneous source of finance?
(a) Accrued expenses
(b) Commercial paper
(c) Treasury bills
(d) Bank overdraft - Which of the following is not a long term finance function decision?
(a) Investment decision
(b) Financing decision
(c) Working capital management decision
(d) Dividend decision - Which of the following approaches suggests that capital structure decision is irrelevant to determining the value of a firm?
(a) Net income approach
(b) Modigliani- Miller approach
(c) Traditional approach
(d) Weighted Average cost of capital (WACC) approach - Arrange the following sources of finance in the order of their duration, starting from short-term to long-term:
(a) Leasing financing
(b) Venture capital financing
(c) Factoring
(d) Commercial paper
(a) a,c,d,b
(b) d,c,a,b
(c) c,d,a,b
(d) a,b,d,c - The CEO of XYZ Ltd. sanctioned loans to ineligible borrowers in return for hefty, commissions paid to his spouse. The borrowers later defaulted on these loans causing heavy losses to XYZ Bank Ltd. This is an example of:
(a) Agency problem
(b) Agency cost
(c) Hubris
(d) Wealth maximization - Which of the following sources of finance is the most suitable for a housing finance company to raise financing for further disbursement of housing loans?
(a) Euro bonds
(b) Commercial paper
(c) Bridge financing
(d) Securitisation - ABC Ltd. has issued debentures of the face value of Rs. 1,000 carrying a coupon of 9% p.a. and redeemable at par after 10 years. If applicable tax rate is 30% than the cost of debt is:
(a) 9.05
(b) 2.7%
(c) 6.3%
(d) 6.0% - The capital structure of ABC Ltd. comprises 60% equity and 40% debt. The debt is in the form of debentures having a coupon of 12% p.a. cost of equity is 18%. The tax rate applicable for the company is 30%. The weighted average cost of capital (WACC) for ABC Ltd. is
(a) 14.16%
(b) 13.30%
(c) 15.60%
(d) 8.60% - The purchase sales and cost of goods sold for ABC Ltd. are Rs. 4,80,000, Rs.5,40,000 and Rs. 250,000, respectively. the stock of finished goods, debtors and creditors as on 31 march is Rs. 50,000, Rs.18,000 and Rs. 12,000, respectively. assume 360 days in a year. The operating cycle for ABC Ltd. is:
(a) 75 days
(b) 54 days
(c) 69 days
(d) 81 days - Which of the following models uses the concept of ‘economic order quantity’ to determine the optimal level of cash to be held by a business?
(a) Stochastic (Miller-Orr) model
(b) Probability model
(c) Walter model
(d) Baumol model - Which of the following is not one of the 5 C’s considered for credit evaluation of a customer?
(a) Character of the customer
(b) Capacity or customers ability to pay
(c) Collateral offered by the customer
(d) Cost structure of the customer - Which of the following techniques of inventory control is generally used for classification of maintenance spare parts?
(a) ABC analysis
(b) VED analysis
(c) Perpetual inventory system
(d) Just in time - XYZ Ltd, paid a dividend of Rs. 15 per share last year and the dividend is expected to grow at a constant rate of 10% every year. If the market price of the shares today is Rs.825, then the cost of equity as per the dividend discount model is:
(a) 12%
(b) 18%
(c) 20%
(d) 16% - A company is considering investment in a 5-year project that requires an initial outlay of Rs. 32lakh. The estimated post tax cash inflows are: year 1:Rs. 6 lakh, Year 2: Rs. 11lakh, year 3: Rs. 20 lakh, year 4: Rs. 22 lakh and year 5:Rs. 26 lakh
The payback period for the project is:
(a) 2 years and 9 Months
(b) 3 years and 7Months
(c) 2 years and 6 Months
(d) 3 years and 8 Months - The earnings per share of PQR Ltd. is Rs. 10 for the current year. It has a policy of maintaining a dividend payout ratio of 40%. The cost of equity is 15% while the internal rate on the company projects is 20% . which of the following statements is true according to the Walter model?
(a) Other things remaining constant, if the dividend payout ratio is increased to 60% the share price of PQR Ltd, will rise.
(b) Other things remaining constant, if the internal rate of the interest on the company projects falls to 16% the share price of PQR Ltd, will fall.
(c) Other things remaining constant, if the company decides to skip dividend, the share price will fall.
(d) Dividend decision are irrelevant for determining the firm value. - XYZ Ltd, has total current assets of Rs. 560 crore, creditors for goods and services of Rs. 300 crore and bank borrowing of Rs. 200 Crore. The maximum permissible bank finance under method-I of the Tandon Committee norms is:
(a) Rs. 195 crore
(b) Rs. 45 crore
(c) Rs. 105 crore
(d) Rs. 215 crore - XYZ Ltd. currently sells 20000 units of its product its product at Rs. 10 per unit with a variable cost of Rs. 7 per unit and fixed costs of Rs. 3,000 P.a. The company plans to increase its selling price to Rs. 12 per unit and reduce the variable cost to per Rs. 6 per unit. If the quantity sold is expected to increase to 22000 units with the same fixed costs, then the degree of operating leverage is:
(a) 6.5
(b) 5.0
(c) 7.5
(d) 4.5 - Which is the following statements is not correct?
(a) A credit card system is a credit system in retail transactions which has a present spending limit based on the users credit limit.
(b) A smart card is a plastic card of the size of a credit card with an integrated circuit built into it.
(c) A debit card is a banking card enhanced with automated teller machine and point of sale features so that it can be used at merchant locations.
(d) E-Payment cannot be made without physical transfer of cash or document. - ____are the address at which web pages can be found.
(a) WWW
(b) URLs
(c) NAP
(d) FTP - ATM stands for:
(a) Any Time Machine
(b) Automated Teller Machine
(c) Annual Teller Machine
(d) Actual Teller Machine - ______Sampling is a form of multistage sampling in which maps, rather than lists or register are used as the sampling frame.
(a) Quota
(b) Area
(c) Judgement
(d) Conveience - What is the probability of getting three heads or three tails on three successive tosses?
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.125
(c) 0.50
(d) 0.75 - ___refers to any communication technology that permits clients to play streaming audio and video files at acceptable speeds. i.e. generally anything above 100 kbps.
(a) Narrowband
(b) Broadband
(c) Cable modem
(d) Telnet - Rejecting a null hypothesis when it is true is called a_____.
(a) Type I error
(b) Type II error
(c) Type III error
(d) Type IV error - The probability of committing type II error is symbolished as:
(a) Beta
(b) Alpha
(c) Gamma
(d) Equal to - Probability ranges from______to________.
(a) 1 To 0
(b) 0 to 1
(c) 0 To infinity
(d) 1 to 10 - Student’s t-distribution was discovered by________.
(a) Laplace
(b) Fisher
(c) Grosset
(d) Pearson - The mean of sampling distribution of mean is equal to the _______.
(a) Standard deviation
(b) Median
(c) Population Mean
(d) Mode - The standard deviation of sampling distribution is called
(a) Standard error
(b) Sampling distribution
(c) Mean error
(d) Type II error - The t-distribution is used when sample size is______or less and the population standard deviation is
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) 50 - The mean of the poisson distribution is 2.25. Find standard deviation of the distribution?
(a) 1.5
(b) 2.5
(c) 00
(d) 5.1 - Which of the following is not a property of normal distribution?
(a) The normal curve is symmetrical about the mean.
(b) The height of the normal curve is maximum at the median value
(c) The normal curve has only one mode.
(d) The mean deviation is 0.7979 of the standard deviation. - A sample design in which a sample is drawn in two or more stage sequentially is known as_____ sampling.
(a) Judgement
(b) Multi-stage
(c) Quota
(d) Cluster - Suppose Mr X toss a fair coin twice. What is the probability of getting two successive heads?
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.125
(c) 0.50
(d) 2.00 - If the standard deviation is 300 and n = 25, calculate the standard error of the sample mean?
(a) 60
(b) 30
(c) 25
(d) 40 - Poisson distribution was derived by S.D. poisson in the year______.
(a) 1873
(b) 1783
(c) 1837
(d) 1738 - If the probability of defective bolt is 0.1 calculate its mean for the distribution of defective bolts in a total of 1000? (Use binomial distribution)
(a) 50
(b) 100
(c) 1000
(d) 500 - Through Chi-square test, it is possible for a researcher to:
(i) Test the goodness of fit.
(ii) Test the significance of association between two attrinutes.
(iii) Test the homogeneity or the significance of population variance.
(a) Point i only
(b) Point ii ony
(c) Point I and ii only
(d) Point i,ii,and iii (all) - The ANOVA technique was developed by_______.
(a) R.A. Fisher
(b) A.R. Fisher
(c) A.A. Fisher
(d) R.M. Fisher - Let there are 8 persons from whom we have to select samples of size 3. How many samples can be selected?
(a) 56
(b) 65
(c) 32
(d) 64 - Which one of the following is not a managerial function of the human resource management ?
(a) Planning
(b) Training
(c) Directing
(d) Controlling - Which of the following technique may be used to anticipate the supply of human resources?
(a) Work study technique
(b) Ratio analysis
(c) Regression technique
(d) Markow analysis - Which of the following statements is FALSE?
(a) Human resource planning forecast future requirements for human resources
(b) Human resource planning facilitates the expansion and diversification of an organization.
(c) Human resource planning does not anticipate the cost of human resources.
(d) Human resource planning helps in planning for physical facilities like canteen & staff quarters for the staff. - _____is a deatailed and systematic. Study of jobs to know the nature and characteristics of people to be employed for each job.
(a) Job design
(b) Job specification
(c) Job analysis
(d) Job planning - ____is a written record of the appropriate and authorized contents of a job.(i.e. duties % responsibilities of the job)
(a) Job specification
(b) Job description
(c) Job record
(d) Job design - A job analysis results in two important documents: (i) Job description and (ii) ______.
(a) Job design
(b) Job redesign
(c) Job enrichment
(d) Job specification - Which of the following statements is not true concerning recruitment?
(a) Recruitment can be made only from internal but not external sources.
(b) Recruitment is the process of searching employee.
(c) Recruitment is a pervasive function as all organization engage in recruiting activity.
(d) Recruitment is a two-way process. - ____is a scientific technique of ascertaining of the relative worth of different jobs in an organization.
(a) Job design
(b) Job evaluation
(c) Job description
(d) Job specification - _______is the process of assessing systematically the performance of a person on the present job and his potential for higher level jobs in future.
(a) Performance management
(b) Job evaluation
(c) Performance appraisal
(d) Job analysis - ___is a process wherein representatives of the employer and of the employees negotiate on voluntary basis the terms and conditions of employment .
(a) Trade union
(b) Trade bargaining
(c) Collective bargaining
(d) Management by objectives - In India, the trade unions act was passes in the year_______.
(a) 1920
(b) 1926
(c) 1962
(d) 1942 - ___is the process of increasing knowledge and skills for a specific job.
(a) Development
(b) Training
(c) Job
(d) Evaluation - _______is the process by which managers acquire not only skills and competencies in their jobs but also capabilities for future managerial tasks.
(a) Performance appraisal
(b) Management development
(c) Conference training
(d) Promotion - Which of the following method of training is not generally considered as on the job training?
(a) Coaching
(b) Job rotation
(c) Sensitivity
(d) Position rotation - ______is a voluntary and counting association of employees to protect and promote their interest.
(a) Collective bargaining
(b) Trade union
(c) Collective action
(d) Grievance redresser - Which of the following performance appraisal method combines graphic raing scale with critical incidents method to evaluate employee’s performance?
(a) Behaviourally anchored raing scales
(b) Human resource accounting method
(c) Forced choice method
(d) MBO - ___________Appraisal is a system or process in which employees received confidential, anonymous, feedback from the people who work around them.
(a) 60 – degree
(b) 360 – degree
(c) 180 – degree
(d) 90 – degree - ____is a systematic process of improving the performance and developing the capabilities of teams and individuals in an organization
(a) Performance Feedback
(b) Performance standard
(c) Performance appraisal
(d) Performance management - Which of the following source is not an internal source of recruitment?
(a) Promotion
(b) Campus recruitment
(c) Transfer
(d) Job posting - ______is the process of searching the candidates for employment and stimulating them to apply for jobs in the organization
(a) Job enrichment
(b) Recruitment
(c) Selection
(d) Job anlaysis - ______concopts of marketing hold that consumers will favour products that are available and highly affordable.
(a) Selling
(b) Production
(c) Marketing
(d) Societal - A company’s_____consists of the actors and forces outside marketing that affect marketing management’s ability to develop and maintain successful relationships with its target customers.
(a) Marketing segment
(b) Marketing mix
(c) Marketing environment
(d) Marketing information - _____Segmentation divides the market into groups based on variables such as age , gender, family size, income, occupation, education, religion, race & nationally.
(a) Life cycle
(b) Demographic
(c) Geographic
(d) Psychological - ____ refers to the amount of money charged for a product or service or the sum of the values that consumer exchange for the benefits of having or using the product service.
(a) Product
(b) Distribution
(c) Price
(d) Promotion - _______is a policy under which a manufacturer fixes the price of his product below which his product would not be sold to the consumer or distributors.
(a) Mark up pricing
(b) Legal pricing
(c)Price discrimination
(d) Resale price maintenance - The study of _____is the study of how individuals make decisions to spend their available resources (time, money, effort) on consumption-related items.
(a) Selling behaviour
(b) Consumer behaviour
(c) Social behaviour
(d) Cultural behavior - Which buying behavior occurs when consumer are highly involved with an expensive, infrequent or risky purchase, but see little difference among brands?
(a) Complex
(b) Dissonance reducing
(c) Habitual
(d) Variety- seeking - ________refers to the combination of various promotional tools used by a business firm to create, maintain and increase demand.
(a) Price mix
(b) Promotion mix
(c) Place
(d) Sales mix - Marketing mix is known as the four p’s of marketing. The marketing mix components are price, place, product &_____.
(a) Promotion
(b) Patents
(c) Possession
(d) Position - ______help the company to promote, sell and distribute its goods to final buyers.
(a) Suppliers
(b) Marketing intermediaries
(c) Echo boomers
(d) Generational marketing - Which of the pricing policy state that a company will fix the price of a product below the competitive level to obtain a larger share of the market and to develop popularity of the brand?
(a) Skimming pricing
(b) Competitive pricing
(c) Penetration pricing
(d) Keep out pricing - Which of the following marketing concept hold that the organization should determine the need, wants and interests of target markets?
(a) Selling
(b) Production
(c) Societal
(d) Marketing - _____ Environment consists of factors that affect consumer purchasing power and spending patterns.
(a) Political
(b) Economic
(c) Demographic
(d) Natural - Which of the following segmentation divides buyers into different groups based on social class, lifestyle, or personality characteristics?
(a) Product
(b) Demographic
(c) Psychographic
(d) Geographic - Which of the following pricing policy involves setting a very high price for a new product initially and to reduce the price gradually as competitors enter the market?
(a) Skimming the cream pricing
(b) Penetration pricing
(c) Keep out pricing
(d) Negotiating pricing - ______as anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition, use or consumption and that might satisfy a want or need.
(a) Price
(b) Product
(c) Place
(d) Promotion - Which of the following market segmentation strategy follow “ one product one segment principal”?
(a) Niche
(b) Concentrated
(c) Differentiated
(d) Undifferntiated - ___is the process of dividing the total heterogeneous market into several homogeneous sub-markets.
(a) Market segmentation
(b) Market sustainability
(c) Market mix
(d) Market determinants - Consumers undertake __in situations characterized by low consumer involvement but significant perceived brand differences.
(a) Controlled buying behaviour
(b) Decision buying behaviour
(c) Habitual buying behaviour
(d) Variety seeking buying behaviour - Which of the following statements is False about Language?
(a) SGM = Standard Generalized Markup Language
(b) XML = Extensible Modem Language
(c) HTML = Hyper text markup Language
(d) IE = Internet Explorer - _____is the programming language used to create most web pages and which provides designers with a fixed set of tags that are used to format a web page.
(a) HTLL
(b) FTP
(c) HTML
(d) HTTPAnswer Key
1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (c) 4 (a) 5 (b) 6 (a) 7 (b) 8 (d) 9 (c) 10 (d) 11 (b) 12 (a) 13 (d) 14 (c) 15 (c) 16 (d) 17 (c) 18 (a) 19 (c) 20 (d) 21 (b) 22 (d) 23 (b) 24 (a) 25 (c) 26 (d) 27 (b) 28 (*) 29 (d) 30 (a) 31 (d) 32 (b) 33 (c) 34 (b) 35 (c) 36 (d) 37 (a) 38 (d) 39 (b) 40 (b) 41 (c) 42 (c) 43 (a) 44 (b) 45 (d) 46 (c) 47 (a) 48 (d) 49 (b) 50 (d) 51 (c) 52 (a) 53 (c) 54 (d) 55 (d) 56 (a) 57 (a) 58 (c) 59 (c) 60 (a) 61 (c) 62 (b) 63 (d) 64 (a) 65 (b) 66 (a) 67 (d) 68 (b) 69 (b) 70 (a) 71 (c) 72 (b) 73 (c) 74 (a) 75 (d) 76 (c) 77 (a) 78 (a) 79 (d) 80 (d) 81 (b) 82 (a) 83 (a) 84 (b) 85 (a) 86 (c) 87 (d) 88 (b) 89 (b) 90 (b) 91 (a) 92 (b) 93 (a) 94 (a) 95 (b) 96 (c) 97 (c) 98 (a) 99 (b) 100 (a)101 (b) 102 (b) 103 (a) 104 (a) 105 (c) 106 (b) 107 (d) 108 (a) 109 (a) 110 (b) 111 (d) 112 (c) 113 (c) 114 (b) 115 (d) 116 (a) 117 (b) 118 (c) 119 (c) 120 (b)121 (b) 122 (b) 123 (c) 124 (b) 125 (a) 126 (b) 127 (d) 128 (b) 129 (b) 130 (b) 131 (c) 132 (b) 133 (c) 134 (d) 135 (b) 136 (b) 137 (b) 138 (a) 139 (b) 140 (c) 141 (c)142 (b) 143 (c) 144 (a) 145 (b) 146 (b) 147 (a) 148 (d) 149 (b) 150 (c)
* = wrong Answer