PhD Entrance – CU CET Commerce-2020

Part – I

  1. Which of the following sentences is correct?
    (a) I reached the station in time to catch the first train.
    (b) I reached the station on time to catch the first train.
    (c) I reached the station correct time to catch the first train.
    (d) I reached the station in right time to catch the train.
  2. As soon as he arrived _____it started rainaing.
    (a) When
    (b) Than
    (c) There
    (d) None
  3. Which of the following is correctly spelt?
    (a) Embarasment
    (b) Embarrasment
    (c) Embarrassment
    (d) Embarasament
  4. Which is the appropriate synonym for ‘joker’?
    (a) Comedian
    (b) Humorist
    (c) Clown
    (d) Jester
  5. What is the ‘comparative’ form of ‘Little”?
    (a) Tinier
    (b) Tiniest
    (c) Least
    (d) Less
  6. Which is the correct passive voice of “My mother bought this saree”?
    (a) This saree my mother purchased.
    (b) This saree was bought by his father.
    (c) This saree was bought by my father.
    (d) By my mother this saree was purchased.
  7. What is a “jargon”?
    (a) Words or expression of a group or profession incomprehensible to others
    (b) Words of phrases of a group or profession familiar to others
    (c) Words and expressions of a group or profession borrowed from others
    (d) Words and phrases of a group or profession adopted from foreign languages
  8. What is the nearest Antonyms of God?
    (a) Ghost
    (b) Pheonix
    (c) Demon
    (d) Elfin
  9. What is the correct indirect narration of the teacher said, “ The Earth revolves round the sun”
    (a) The teacher said that the Earth was revolving round the sun
    (b) The teacher taught that the Earth is revolving round the sun
    (c) The teacher told that the Earth revolves round the sun
    (d) The teacher informed the Earth revolved round the sun
  10. Which is the correct sentence?
    (a) Neither he did his homework nor he did attend his class.
    (b) Neither did he do his homework nor did he attend his class.
    (c) Neither he did his homework nor attend his class.
    (d) Neither he did his homework nor attend his class.
  11. A toy sold at 20% profit. If it had been sold at 20% loss the selling price would have been Rs. 100 less. Then the cost of toy is
    (a) Rs. 250
    (b) Rs. 240
    (c) Rs. 200
    (d) Rs. 140
  12. The ratio of ducks to frogs in a pond is 37.39. The average number of ducks and frogs in the pond is 190. Then the number of frogs in the pond is:
    (a) 185
    (b) 190
    (c) 195
    (d) 175
  13. By increasing the speed of his car by 15km/hr. motorist covers 300 km in an hour less than be. The original speed of the car was?
    (a) 45km/hr
    (b) 50km/hr
    (c) 75km/hr
    (d) 60km/hr
  14. If the difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of money at the rate of 5% annum for two years is Rs.20, then what is the principal amount?
    (a) Rs.9300
    (b) Rs.8000
    (c) Rs.10000
    (d) Rs.9000
  15. A and B can do a piece of work in 8 days, B and C can do same work in 12 days. If A,B and C complete the same work in 6 days, Then in how many days can A and C complete the same work?
    (a) 8
    (b) 16
    (c) 10
    (d) 12
  16. The Headquarters of UN is located at
    (a) London
    (b) New York
    (c) Vienna
    (d) Hague
  17. “Silicon Valley of India” refer to
    (a) Hyderabad
    (b) Pune
    (c) Bengaluru
    (d) Gurgaon
  18. Arrange in ascending order the units of computer memory TB, KB, GB, MB
    (a) TN>MB>GB>KB
    (b) KB>GB>MB>TB
    (c) MB>GB>TB>KB
    (d) TB>GB>MB>KB
  19. Largest ocean of the world is
    (a) Atlantic
    (b) Arctic
    (c) Pacific
    (d) Antarctic
  20. Pt. Madan Mohan Malviya was founder of
    (a) Kashi Vidyapeeth
    (b) Banaras Hindu University
    (c) Delhi University
    (d) Allahabad University
  21. Which of the following is a bacterial disease?
    (a) Measles
    (b) Small pox
    (c) Rabies
    (d) Tuberculosis
  22. Who is sovereign in India?
    (a) Prime minister of India
    (b) President of India
    (c) Council of Ministers
    (d) We the people of India
  23. H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases?
    (a) AIDS
    (b) Dengue
    (c) Bird flue
    (d) Swine flue
  24. Who is known as Prince Khurram in the Medieval History of India?
    (a) Shah Jahan
    (b) Jahangir
    (c) Akbar
    (d) Brahmaputra
  25. Pong Dam has been constructed on river______?
    (a) Ganga
    (b) Beas
    (c) Yamuna
    (d) Brahmputra
  26. Research is
    (a) Searching again and again
    (b) Finding solution to any problem
    (c) Working in a scientific way to search for truth of any problem
    (d)None of the above
  27. Which of the following is not true about e journals ?
    (a) They are distributed through digital methods
    (b) They also have editors or editorial boards
    (c) They are publications of serial nature
    (d) They are always free of cost
  28. Questionnaire is a:
    (a) Research method
    (b) Tool for data collection
    (c) Measurement technique
    (d) Data analysis technique
  29. An appropriate source to find out descriptive information is_____.
    (a) Bibliography
    (b) Directory
    (c) Encyclopedia
    (d) Dictionary
  30. Information is
    (a) Raw Data
    (b) Processed Data
    (c) Input Data
    (d) Organized Data
  31. One of the following is not an open source softwares;
    (a) D Space
    (b) Windows
    (c) Green stone
    (d) Linux
  32. In the process of conducting research “Formulation of Hypothesis” is followed by
    (a) Statement of Objectives
    (b) Analysis of Data
    (c) Selection of Researches Tools
    (d) Collection of Data
  33. Which of the following variables cannot be expressed in quantitative terms?
    (a) Socio-economic status
    (b) Numerical Aptitude
    (c) Marital status
    (d) Professional Attitude
  34. A common test in research demands much priority on
    (a) Reliability
    (b) Useability
    (c) Objectivity
    (d) All of the above
  35. Inferring about the whole population based on the observations made on a small part is called
    (a) Deductive inference
    (b) Inductive inference
    (c) Pseudo-inference
    (d) Objective inference
  36. Which of the following can be considered as an evaluation research?
    (a) How well are we doing?
    (b) What are we doing?
    (c) Why are we doing?
    (d) All of these
  37. Which of the following statements regarding hypothesis is true?
    (a) Hypothesis relates variables to constants
    (b) Hypothesis relates constants to constants
    (c) Hypothesis relates constants to variables
    (d) Hypothesis relates variables to variables
  38. The correlational research seeks to:
    (a) Determine the relationship between two or move variables
    (b) Study the effect of one on other
    (c) Both a and b
    (d)None of these.
  39. The population census carried out by the Government of India can be example of:
    (a) Exploratory Research
    (b) Casual Research
    (c) Descriptive Research
    (d) All of the above
  40. Definition “Research is systematized effort to gain new knowledge” given by:
    (a) J.W. Creswell
    (b) I.V. Redman and A.V.H.Morey
    (c) Martyn Shuttleworth
    (d) C.R. Kothari
  41. Research that is done to understand an event from the past is known as
    (a) Historical Research
    (b) Descriptive Research
    (c) Experimental Research
    (d) Empirical Research
  42. Which of the following is an example of qualitative variable?
    (a) Grade point average
    (b) Anxiety level
    (c) Gender
    (d) Reading performance
  43. Document analysis comes under____________.
    (a) Experimental research
    (b) Qualitative research
    (c) Descriptive research
    (d) Applied research
  44. Cross sectional research deals with collection and analysis of data________.
    (a) Over the time
    (b) At a point of time
    (c) None of above
    (d) Both a and b
  45. Which of the following approaches says that ethical issues should be judged on the basis of universal code?
    (a) Deontological
    (b) Ethical skepticism
    (c) Utilitarianism
    (d) None of the above
  46. Before participating in research, the research participants must give
    (a) Guidelines
    (b) A commitment
    (c) Informed consent
    (d) Private information
  47. Body of the report includes
    (a) Objectives
    (b) Methodology
    (c) Findings and Limitations
    (d) References
  48. Which one of the following is not a minor part of a formal report?
    (a) Appendix
    (b) Table of Contents
    (c) Glossary
    (d) References
  49. Which ethical principal obligates the researcher to secure the well being of all study participants?
    (a) Principal of Beneficence
    (b) Principal of Justice
    (c) Principal of no Maleficence
    (d) Principal of Autonomy
  50. Which of the following is correct?
    (a) Research methods are a part of research methodology
    (b) Research methodology is a part of research methods
    (c) Research methods and research methodology are one and same thing
    (d) All of above
    Part – II
  51. Which of the following country had greater economic tie with India during 2018-19 as per the data from the ministry of commerce and industry?
    (a) China
    (b) USA
    (c) UAE
    (d) Switzerland
  52. Match List I with List II
    List I List II
    A. Ind AS7 i. Inventories
    B. Ind AS 33 ii. Statements of cash flows
    C. Ind AS 41 iii. Earning per share
    D. Ind AS 2 iv. Agriculture
    (a) A-ii,B-iii,C-iv,D-i
    (b) A-iii,B-iv,C-i,D-ii
    (c) A-iv,B-i,C-ii,D-iii
    (d) A-iii,B-ii,C-iv,D-i
  53. The major provisions for employees’ health and safety are contained in_________.
    (a) The factories Act, 1948
    (b) The industrial Employment Act, 1946
    (c) The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
    (d) The Employees compensation Act, 1923
  54. A deficit or surplus in the India’s balance of trade is measured by the net balance of_____.
    (a) The current Account
    (b) The capital Account
    (c) Allocation of SDRs and the statistical Discrepancy
    (d) All of the above
  55. Asseration (a) : Amended patent Act, in compliance with WTO, provides for grant of product patent as well as a process patent for a period of 10 years from the date of application.
    Reasoning (r) : Under the Act, Patent may be granted to an invention which means a new product or process involving an inventive step and capable of industrial application a technical advances over existing knowledge.
    (a) Both a and r are true but r is not correct explanation to a
    (b) A is false but r is correct
    (c) Both a and r are true and r is correct explanation to a
    (d) A is correct but r is false
  56. Which of the following is the basic objective of the world bank?
    (a) To provide social services
    (b) To promote economic growth
    (c) To provide financial assistance
    (d) to eradicate proverty
  57. USCMA is a trade agreement between_______.
    (a) US,China and Maxico
    (b) US, South America,China, Mexico and Afganistan
    (c) US, China and Canada
    (d) US,Canads and Maxico
  58. Share Capital Suspense Account is opened when_________.
    (a) Some shares are forfeited
    (b) Dividend is declared but not claimes
    (c) Temporarily holds unclassified funds till decision is taken for permanent parking.
    (d) Balance sheet does not tally
  59. Match List I with List II
    List I
    (a) BEP
    (b) Fixed Cost
    (c) P/V
    (d) Contribution
    List II
    i. Profit/MOS
    ii. FC/Contribution per unit
    iii. Sales-variable Cost
    iv. (Sales X P/V) Desired profit
    (a) A-ii,B-iv,C-i,D-iii
    (b) A-i,B-iv,C-iii,D-ii
    (c) A-iv,B-i,C-ii,D-iii
    (d) A-iii,B-ii,C-iv,D-i
  60. Social Balance sheet shows__________.
    (a) Social cost
    (b) Social revenue
    (c) Value of Employees of the organization
    (d) All of the above
  61. Which of the following comes under Liquidity Ratio_______
    (a) Acid test ratio
    (b) Defensive interval ratio
    (c) Only a
    (d) Both a and b
  62. Which of the following accounting conventions stipulates that contigent assets appear as a footnote the balance sheet?
    (a) Disclosure
    (b) Consistency
    (c) Conservatism
    (d) Materiality
  63. Statement R: Stratified sampling is used in situation where the population can be easily divided groups.
    Statement S: Elements within a group are heterogeneous with respect to characteristics.
    (a) Statement R is correct but statement S is wrong
    (b) Both the statement are correct
    (c) Both the statement are wrong
    (d) Statement R is wrong but statement S is correct.
  64. Which of the following is a false statement?
    (a) In sample regression, the number of variable involved is two
    (b) Kruskai-Wallis H test is a type of non-parametric test
    (c) Chi square can be used to determine how well a theoretical distribution fits on the observed data
    (d) Normal curve arrived from distribution of sample data is called platykurtic
  65. The value of the coefficient of correlation ‘r’ lies between__________.
    (a) 0 and 1
    (b) -1 and 0
    (c) -1 and +1
    (d) -0.5 and +0.5
  66. Identify which of the following steps would be included in hypothesis testing:
    (a) State the null and alternative hypotheses
    (b) Set the significance level before the research study
    (c) Eliminate all outlines
    (d) Obtain the probability value using a computer program such as SPSS
    (e) Compare the probability value to the significance level and make the statistical decision
    (a) A,c and d
    (b) C,d and e
    (c) A,b,d and e
    (d) B,c,d, and e
  67. For the given set of data: 4,,4 5,6,6 which of the following is true?
    (a) Mean = Mode
    (b) Median = Mode
    (c) Mean = Median
    (d) Mean <Median
  68. The standard Normal distribution has__________.
    (a) Mean=1 and standard distribution = 0
    (b) Mean = 0 and standard distribution = 0
    (c) Mean = 1 and standard distribution = 1
    (d) Mean = 0 and standard distribution = 1
  69. Which formula is used to measure the degree of Financial Leverage?
    (a) EBIT/Sales
    (b) EBIT/(EBIT-Interest)
    (c) Contribution / EAIBT
    (d) Contribution/EBIT
  70. Statement (P): America style option can be exercised by the holder of the option only on the expiration date.
    Statement (Q): Current market price of the underlying asset falls below the exercise price in call option is called in the money (ITM).
    (a) Statement P is correct but statement Q is wrong
    (b) Both the statements are correct
    (c) Both the statements are wrong
    (d) Statements P is wrong but statement Q is correct
  71. Which of the following are discounted cash flow techniques?
    (a) Net present value method
    (b) Internal rate of return method
    (c) Profitability index method
    (d) Terminal value method
    (a) A and b only
    (b) A, b and c
    (c) A,b,c, and d
    (d) A and c only
  72. _______is the formula for calculating Cost of (after tax) irredeemable Debt.
    (a) Kdb=l/P
    (b) Kdb=(l/NP)(1-t)
    (c) Kdb=D/P
    (d) Kdb=P/1(1-t)
  73. Which of the following techniques is not used for measuring risk in investment decision?
    (a) Probability Technique
    (b) Decision Tree Technique
    (c) Correlation Technique
    (d) Sensitivity Technique
  74. MM approach is based on the following assumptions:
    a) There is corporate tax
    b) There is a imperfect market
    c) Investors are irrational
    d) All earnings are distributed to the shareholders
    Choose the correct code:
    (a) A and b only
    (b) A and d only
    (c) A,b,c and d
    (d) D only
  75. Which of the following are the objective and functions of IDBI?
    (a) To provide technical and administrative assistance for promotion or expansion of industry
    (b) To undertake market and investment research and surveys and also technical and economic studies in connection with development of industry
    (c) To finance projects those are in conformity with national priorities
    (d) All of these
  76. Assertion (a) : Use of paper money is replaced by plastic money. The future will see the electronic money clearance through satellite networking.
    Reason (r): RBI is encouraging e-Banking
    (a) A is false but r is true
    (b) A is true but r is false
    (c) Both a and r are true
    (d) Both a and r are false
  77. Match the following
    Name of the Bank Year of Establishment
    A. IRDAI i. 1990
    B. SEBI ii. 1999
    C. LIC iii. 1935
    D. RBI iv. 1956
    (a) A-ii,B-i,C-iv,D-iii
    (b) A-iii,B-iv,C-i,D-ii
    (c) A-ii,B-iii,C-iv,D-i
    (d) A-iii,B-ii,C-iv,D-i
  78. LIBOR is the ___________.
    (a) Interest rate in Euro currency market
    (b) Deposit rate applicable to interbank loans in London
    (c) Deposit rate in European market
    (d) Interest rate in Euro Bond market
  79. Call money is the __________.
    (a) Money borrowed for more than one day but up to 14 days
    (b) Money borrowed for more than one day but up to 7days
    (c) Money borrowed or lent for a day or overnight
    (d) Money borrowed for more than one day but up to 3 days
  80. Which pillar deals with supervisory reviews and outlines the role of the supervisor and the requirements regarding the responsibilities of the bank’s board and senior management?
    (a) Basel III
    (b) Basel I
    (c) Basel II
    (d) Both Basel I and Basel II
  81. In which of the following case, income of the previous year is assessable in the previous year its called
    (a) A person leaving India permanantly
    (b) India citizen leaving India as a crew member of ship in the previous year
    (c) Indian origin settled in foreign country coming on a visit to India during the previous year
    (d) A person engaged in illegal business
  82. Match the following items of List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
    List I (items) List II
    A. Medical treatment i. Sec. 80 DDB
    B. Royalty Income ii. Sec. 80 QQB
    C. Individual suffering from disability iii. Sec. 80 U
    D. Donation iv. Sec. 80G
    (a) A-ii,B-i,C-iv,D-iii
    (b) A-i,B-iv,C-iii,D-ii
    (c) A-i,B-ii,C-iii,D-iv
    (d) A-ii,B-i,C-iii,D-iv
  83. For the previous year 2018-19 taxable income of A Ltd. a domestic company (turnover in FY 2016 was 249.5 crore:) is Rs. 10,86,920. Taxable liability will be______.
    (a) 2,82,600
    (b) 4,47,811
    (c) 3,39,120
    (d) 3,35,860
  84. ____is the optimal tax objective for Multinational corporation.
    (a) Minimize domestic taxes paid on worldwide income
    (b) Minimize world-wide taxes paid, within the limitations of applicable tax law
    (c) Minimize world-wide taxes paid
    (d) Minimize foreign taxes
  85. All taxpayers(other than the eligible assessee as referred to in section 44AD or section 44ADA)
    Require to pay up to 45% of advance tax by_____.
    (a) 15th June
    (b) 30th June
    (c) 15th September
    (d) 30th September
  86. Long term capital gains in case of a firms U/S 112 (A) taxed at____.
    (a) 40%
    (b) 30%
    (c) 10%
    (d) 20%
  87. Which of the following is not an element of promotion mix?
    (a) Advertisement
    (b) Branding
    (c) Personal selling
    (d) Sales promotion
  88. Direct marketing is found more suitable to________.
    (a) Agriculture products
    (b) TV
    (c) Shoes
    (d) Vacuum cleaner
  89. The process of introducing high quality products by a manufacturer is called______.
    (a) Product line expansion
    (b) Product line contraction
    (c) Trading down
    (d) Trading up
  90. ____is the marketing and financial value associated with brands strength in a market.
    (a) Brand equity
    (b) Brand loyalty
    (c) Branding
    (d) None of these
  91. _____is concerned with holding the balance between economic and social goals and between individual and communal goals.
    (a) Corporate Governance
    (b) Business Management
    (c) Business ethics
    (d) Corporate management
  92. Which of the following is not the Negotiable Instrument?
    (a) Bills of Exchange
    (b) Promissory Note
    (c) Currency Note
    (d) Cheque
  93. In sale of goods Act, transfer of special property means_____.
    (a) Property of using the goods
    (b) Property of reselling the goods
    (c) Valuable property in Goods
    (d) None of the above
  94. What is known as the charter of a company?
    (a) Memorandum of Association
    (b) By laws
    (c) Deed of Asociation
    (d) Prospectus
  95. (a) Identify the correct sequence of the steps of grievance procedure required to be followed for the grievance handling.
    (b) Departmental Manager
    (c) Immediate Supervisor
    (d) Arbitration
    (e) Trade Union’s Intervention
    (a) A,b,c & d
    (b) B,c,a & d
    (c) B,a,d & c
    (d) B,d,a & c
  96. In case a decrease in price of a commodity results in an increase in its demand on a negatively sloping demand curve, it is called________.
    (a) Law of demand
    (b) An increase in demand
    (c) An increase in quantity demanded
    (d) All of the above
  97. Willingness to pay minus actual payment is called_________.
    (a) Consumer’s surplus
    (b) Producer’s surplus
    (c) Utility cost
    (d) Supplier’s cost
  98. Giffen goods are those goods_____.
    (a) Which gives rise to a cob-web situation
    (b) For which demand increased as price increases
    (c) Which have high elasticity of demand
    (d) Which are in short supplies
  99. Which code is used to classify goods and services under GST?
    (a) HSN Code
    (b) SAC and HSN Code
    (c) GST Code
    (d) SAC Code
  100. Which Act was replaced with the introduction of the competition Act. 2002?
    (a) FERA
    (b) MRTP
    (c) POTA
    (d) FEMA