MPhil PhD IGNOU Commerce 2019

MPhil PhD IGNOU Commerce Question Paper 2019

  1. The type of research which allows the researcher to gain a better concept and provides direction in order to initiate a more structured research is termed as :
    (1) Fundamental research
    (2) Applied research
    (3) Exploratory research
    (4) Conclusive research
  2. The sampling technique under which population is divided into mutually exclusive groups and the researcher draws sample is called :
    (1) Stratified sampling
    (2) Cluster sampling
    (3) Snowball sampling
    (4) Quota sampling
  3. A logic which includes drawing culmination/inference from a given list of certain facts is :
    (1) Deductive reasoning
    (2) Inductive reasoning
    (3) Abductive reasoning
    (4) Critical thinking
  4. Research studies which determine the frequency with which something occurs or its causal association with something else is called :
    (1) Formulative research
    (2) Descriptive research
    (3) Diagnostic research
    (4) Experimental research
  5. The different conditions that prevail in a research study under which experimental and control groups are put are called as :
    (1) Treatment
    (2) Investigation
    (3) Blueprint
    (4) Analysis
  6. The term is used in experimental research to reflect the restraint in experimental conditions.
    (1) Value
    (2) Alternative
    (3) Novelty
    (4) Control
  7. The ones that have a strong contingent effect on the relationship between the independent and dependent variables :
    (1) Dependent variable
    (2) Independent variable
    (3) Moderating variable
    (4) Extraneous variable
  8. A statement about the magnitude, trend or behaviour of a population under study is called :
    (1) Null hypothesis
    (2) Alternative hypothesis
    (3) Descriptive hypothesis
    (4) Relational hypothesis
  9. Which principle advocates the simultaneous or a sequential use of qualitative and quantitative methods of investigation ?
    (1) Principle of triangulation
    (2) Principle of validity
    (3) Principle of research design
    (4) Principle of testing
  10. A survey which is conducted on different sample groups at different time intervals, is called :
    (1) Cross-sectional study
    (2) Cohort analysis
    (3) Longitudinal study
    (4) Time series study
  11. The research variable in a longitudinal research design is studied over intervals in time.
    (1) Fixed
    (2) Alternate
    (3) Both (1) and (2)
    (4) None of the above
  12. . The most loosely structured research design is :
    (1) Exploratory
    (2) Conclusive
    (3) Descriptive
    (4) Causal
  13. Those entities on which treatments are applied in research are termed as :
    (1) Variables
    (2) Test units
    (3) Instruments
    (4) Symbols
  14. Which variable pose threat to the external and internal validity of the experiment ?
    (1) Dependent variable
    (2) Independent variable
    (3) Moderating variable
    (4) Extraneous variable
  15. The changes in a test unit occurring with the passage of time is known as :
    (1) History
    (2) Maturation
    (3) Instrumentation
    (4) Testing
  16. Treatment is another term used for :
    (1) Dependent variable
    (2) Independent variable
    (3) Moderating variable
    (4) Intervening variable
  17. The sampling interval (K) is determined by the equation :
    (1) K=N+n
    (2) K = N — n
    (3) K = N*n
    (4) K = N/n
  18. When the entire populationis divided into a number of homogeneous groups or classes it is known as :
    (1) Strata
    (2) Clusters
    (3) Sample
    (4) Universe
  19. Which law asserts that the greater the number of items one chooses from a universe, the greater is the possibility of accuracy ?
    (1) Law of statistical regularity
    (2) Law of inertia of large numbers
    (3) Law of probability
    (4) None of the above
  20. Which is not an example of online database ?
    (1) Springer
    (2) Taylor and Francis
    (3) Emerald
    (4) CSO
  21. All the elements of population with proper identification that is available for selection at any stage of sampling is called :
    (1) Sample
    (2) Sampling unit
    (3) Sampling frame
    (4) Universe
  22. Which among the following is not a type of probability sampling ?
    (1) Systematic sampling
    (2) Stratified sampling
    (3) Cluster sampling
    (4) Quota sampling
  23. The technique of system is used for selecting samples based on the area where a map of entire area is prepared.
    (1) Box
    (2) Grid
    (3) Random
    (4) Line
  24. Which method is most appropriate to measure interpersonal relation of people in different groups ?
    (1) Projective techniques
    (2) Content analysis
    (3) Socio-metric analysis
    (4) Observation
  25. The mathematical form of the ratio scale data is given by :
    (1) Y = bX
    (2) X = bY
    (3) Y = X
    (4) Y = abX
  26. Which component of attitude represents an individual’s information and knowledge about an object ?
    (1) Behavioural
    (2) Affective
    (3) Cognitive
    (4) Intention
  27. Age is an example of which type of scale ?
    (1) Nominal scale
    (2) Ordinal scale
    (3) Interval scale
    (4) Ratio scale
  28. An example of itemized rating scale is :
    (1) Likert
    (2) Semantic differential
    (3) Stapel
    (4) All the above
  29. a (alpha) = 0 denotes :
    (1) There is no consistency between the various items of a multiple item scale
    (2) There is complete consistency between the various items of a multiple item scale
    (3) There is fair consistency between the various items of a multiple item scale
    (4) There is poor consistency between the various items of a multiple item scale
  30. Face validity is other term used for :
    (1) Content validity
    (3) Predictive validity
    (2) Concurrent validity
    (4) None of the above
  31. A correlation between the items indicates that the internal consistency of the construct leads to greater reliability.
    (1) Low
    (2) Medium
    (3) High
    (4) Zero
  32. types of questions provide a clue for the good answer in a questionnaire.
    (1) Leading
    (2) Loaded
    (3) Barrelled
    (4) Initial
  33. Which one of the following is an example of sampling error ?
    (1) Error at the time of coding and tabulation.
    (2) Wrong information given by respondent.
    (3) Sampling frame error.
    (4) Sample not being representative of population.
  34. A tool by Microsoft used in data management and analysis :
    (1) Excel
    (2) SPSS
    (3) SAS
    (4) Outlook
  35. The first step in data analysis process is :
    (1) Data validation
    (2) Data editing
    (3) Data coding
    (4) Data classification
  36. Analysis of gender of respondents is an example of :
    (1) Univariate analysis
    (2) Bivariate analysis
    (3) Multivariate analysis
    (4) None of the above
  37. List of the resources which are used by the researcher during the research work :
    (1) Appendix
    (2) Glossary
    (3) Bibliography
    (4) Index
  38. Is a measure that refers to the extent of symmetry or asymmetry in a distribution.
    (1) Average
    (2) Dispersion
    (3) Kurtosis
    (4) Skewness
  39. The height of the normal curve is at its maximum at the value.
    (1) Mean
    (2) Median
    (3) Mode
    (4) None of the above
  40. The value of the coefficient of correlation lies between to
    (1) 0, 1
    (2) —1, 0
    (3) —1, +1
    (4) 0, 2
  41. Both the values of a (alpha) and 13 (beta) in a linear regression equation of the form Y = a + bX are called as :
    (1) Constants
    (2) Slope
    (3) Variables
    (4) Attributes
  42. A could be used to test population mean when population standard deviation is known, though sample size is small.
    (1) T test
    (2) F test
    (3) Z test
    (4) None of the above
  43. Type-I Error occurs if
    (1) The null hypothesis is rejected even though it is true
    (2) The null hypothesis is accepted even though it is false
    (3) Both the null hypothesis as well as alternative hypothesis is rejected
    (4) None of the above
  44. Hypothesis relates
    (1) Constant to variables
    (2) Constant to constant
    (3) Variables to constant
    (4) Variables to variables
  45. Cronbach’s alpha reliability is :
    (1) An average of all possible split-half reliabilities
    (2) The correlation of half of the items with the total participants
    (3) The correlation of each item with the sum of the items
    (4) None of these
  46. Which of the following refrencing style is used by researcher in writing research papers and thesis ?
    (1) American Psychological Association (APA)
    (2) Indian Psychological Association (IPA)
    (3) Chinese Psychological Association (CPA)
    (4) Russian Psychological Association (RPA)
  47. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis’ is followed by :
    (1) Statement of Objectives
    (2) Analysis of Data
    (3) Selection of Research Tools
    (4) Collection of Data
  48. Which of the following are associated with begaviour observation?
    (1) Nonverbal analysis
    (2) Linguistic analysis
    (3) Spatial analysis
    (4) All of the above
  49. Population variable is called:
    (1) Statistic
    (2) Parameter
    (3) Variable
    (4) Constant
  50. referes to inferring about the whole population based on the observation made on a small part.
    (1) Deductive inference
    (2) Inductive inference
    (3) Pseudo inference
    (4) Objective inference
  51. Authorized capital of a Company is Z 5 lac, 40% of it is paid up. Loss incurred during the year is Z 50,000. Accumulated loss carried from last year is Z 2 lac. The Company has a Tangible Net Worth of :
    (1) Nil
    (2) Z 2.50 lac
    (3) ( — ) Z 50,000
    (4) Z 1 lac
  52. Which of the following items are purely financial incomes ?
    (1) Discount in issue of shares
    (2) Interest on Bank loan
    (3) Transfer fees received
    (4) Notional interest on capital employed
  53. Which of the following is not a metric to use for measuring the length of the cash cycle ?
    (1) Acid test days
    (2) Accounts receivable days
    (3) Accounts payable days
    (4) Inventory days
  54. If the weighting of equity in total capital is 1/3, that of debt is 2/3, the return on equity is 15% that of debt is 10% and the corporate tax rate is 32%, what is the Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) ?
    (1) 10.533%
    (2) 7.533%
    (3) 9.533%
    (4) 11.350%
  55. A critical assumption of the Net Operating Income (NOI) approach to valuation is :
    (1) that debt and equity levels remain unchanged
    (2) that dividends increase at a constant rate
    (3) that Ko remains constant regardless of changes in leverage
    (4) that interest expense and taxes are included in the calculation
  56. Which of the following is an example of Positive covenant?
    (1) Maintaining Firm’s Working Capital at or above some specified minimum level
    (2) Furnishing Audited Financial Statements Periodically to the Lender
    (3) Maintaining any Collateral Security in Good Condition
    (4) Restriction on selling of leasing assets
  57. Which of the following is measured by Retention Ratio?
    (1) Operating Efficiency
    (2) Administrative Efficiency
    (3) Financial Policy
    (4) Dividend Policy
  58. Product costs include which of the following ?
    (1) Selling Expenses
    (2) General Expenses
    (3) Manufacturing Overhead
    (4) Administrative Expenses
  59. An Account was Opened with an Investment of Z 3,000 Ten years ago. The Ending Balance in the Account is Z 4,100. If Interest was Compounded, how much compounded interest was earned ?
    (1) Z 500
    (2) Z 752
    (3) Z 1,052
    (4) Z 1,100
  60. What is the Effective Annual Rate of interest if interest is 7% Compounded Monthly ?
    (1) 7.00%
    (2) 7.12%
    (3) 7.19%
    (4) 7.23%
  61. Which scheme is eligible for Refinance from NABARD (National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development) ?
    (1)Small Road and Water Transport Operators (SRWTO)
    (2)Soft Loan Assistance for Margin Money (SLAMM)
    (3)Soft Employment Scheme for Ex.serviceman (SEMFEX)
    Choose correct answer from the following :
    (1) (i), (ii)
    (2) (ii), (iii)
    (3) (i),
    (4) All of the above
  62. Which of the following statement is correct ?
    (1) Banks can accept both demand and time deposits from Public
    (2) Banks can accept only demand deposits from Public
    (3) Banks can accept only deposits from Public
    (4) Banks can accept demand and time deposits only from government
  63. Consider the following statements :
    (1) SBI lays down the norms for Banking Operations and has the final supporting power
    (2) Development Banks are those financial Institutions which provide long term capital for Industries and Agriculture
    (3) First Development Bank was IFCI
    Choose one of the following correct answer :
    (1) Only (i) is correct
    (2) (ii) and (iii) are correct
    (3) None of the above
    (4) All the above are correct
  64. Consider the following statements :
    (i) A Commercial Bank is a type of financial intermediatry because it mediates the savers and the Borrows
    (ii) Commercial Banks assist companies in raising funds in capital market (both Equity and Debt)
    (iii) Investment Bank is also known as Marchant Bank Choose one of the following correct answer :
    (1) All of the above are correct
    (2) Only (ii) is correct
    (3) Only (i) and (iii) are correct
    (4) None of the above is correct
  65. Early Warning Signals (EWS) are those which :
    (i) Indicate signs of credit deterioratation in the loan Account
    (ii) Identify Potential Non Performing Assets (NPAs) Choose one of the following correct answer :
    (1) Only (i) is correct
    (2) Only (ii) is correct
    3) (i) and (ii) are correct
    (4) None of the above is correct
  66. Unabsorbed Depreciation can be carried forward for set off :
    (1) for a period of four years only
    (2) for an unlimited number of years
    (3) for a period of eight year only
    (4) for a period of eighteen year only
  67. Total deduction U/S 80C, 80CCC and 80CCD (except contribution by employer) cannot exceed :
    (1) 50,000
    (2) 1,00,000
    (3) 1,50,000
    (4) 2,00,000
  68. Which of the following allowances are fully taxable ?
    (i) Entertainment allowance
    (ii) Overtime allowance
    (iii) House Rent allowance
    (iv) Non-Practising allowance
    Choose correct one from the following :
    (1) (iii), (iv)
    (2) (i), (iii), (iv)
    (3) (i), (ii), (iii)
    (4) All the above
  69. The Penalty under section 271F for failure to furnish the return of income before the end of the relevant assessment year shall be :
    (1) 20,000
    (2) 15,000
    (3) 10,000
    (4) 5,000
  70. Which of the following was the first state to Ratify GST Bill ?
    (1) Meghalaya
    (2) Sikkim
    (3) Assam
    (4) Manipur
  71. The main tasks in internal appraisal are :
    (1) Assessing the strengths and weakness of the business
    (2) Assessing the health and status of the different product lines, products and brands
    (3) Assessing the competitive advantages available to the unit
    (4) All the above
  72. Penetration pricing, as the name indicates seeks to achive greater market penetration relatively through :
    (1) Low price
    (2) High price
    (3) Moderate price
    (4) None of the above
  73. Personal selling is relatively more effective and economical in case :
    (1) When a product is of a high unit
    (2) Product requires demonstration
    (3) Product requires after sales services
    (4) All of the above
  74. Positioning is done to achieve :
    (1) Customer focused value proposition
    (2) Product focused value proposition
    (3) Company focused value proposition
    (4) None of the above
  75. Which of the following is not a characteristic of “Model Introduction Stage” in PLC ?
    (1) Demands has to be created
    (2) Costs are low
    (3) Makes no money at this stages
    (4) There in little competitions
  76. Which of the following is not a criterion in identifying consumer groups segmentation ?
    (1) The consumers in the segment respond in the same way to a particular marketing mix
    (2) The group has to be small
    (3) The segment must be heterogeneous among each other
    (4) None of the following
  77. The segmentation variable used for toothpaste is :
    (1) Demographic
    (2) Behavioural
    (3) Psychological
    (4) None of the above
  78. Out of the following factors, which factor is not used in pricing of the product ?
    (1) Demand
    (2) Cost
    (3) Competition
    (4) Life cycle of the product
  79. Brand Extension as a branding strategy means :
    (1) Same Product and Same Market
    (2) Existing Product Line and Existing Brand Name
    (3) Existing Brand Name and New Product Line
    (4) None of the above
  80. Habitual buying behaviour refers to the following :
    (1) Low involvement products and less significant difference among brands
    (2) High involvement products and less significant difference among brands
    (3) Less involvement products and significant difference among brands
    (4) High involvement products and high significant difference among brands
  81. Having more than 50% ownership position that provides the entrepreneur with managerial control is called :
    (1) Joint venture
    (2) Majority interest
    (3 ) Horizontal merger
    (4) Diversified activity merge
  82. The practice of creating the entrepreneurial environment within the organisation thereby enabling employees to apply their entrepreneurial skills in the job roles is called :
    (1) Strategic orientation
    (2) Administrative entrepreneurship
    (3) Intrapreneurship
    (4) All of the above
  83. An incubator is :
    (1) A government agency that advises and assists small business
    (2) A programme through which private investment companies lend money
    (3) A specific geographic area for development of business
    (4) A center that offers new business low cost offices with basic business services
  84. Which of the following scheme is created during the 11th plan at empowering urban and rural women ?
    (1) TREAD
    (2) MDA
    (3) MSE-CDP
    (4) Women cell
  85. BARS stands for :
    (1) Behavioural Advancement Rating Scale
    (2) Behavioural Appraisal Rating Scale
    (3) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scale
    (4) Behaviourally Advance Rating Scale
  86. Under which method of job evaluation attempt is made to rank key jobs under different factors and finally assign numerical value to each ranked job which forms a degree of these factors :
    (1) Ranking method
    (2) Grading method
    (3) Factor comparison method
    (4) Point method
  87. The semantic differential technique developed by Osgood, Suci and Tannenbaum is used to measure :
    (1) Perception
    (2) Attitude
    (3) Learning
    (4) Power
  88. A person characterised by rationality, viewing people as equal, worthy and responsible is in a state of :
    (1) Parent Ego
    (2) Adult Ego
    (3) Both (1) and (2)
    (4) None of the above
  89. A micro enterprise where investment in plant and machinary does not exceed the following (According to MSMED Act, 2006) :
    (1) Z 15 Lakh
    (2) Z 20 Lakh
    (3) Z 25 Lakh
    (4) Z 30 Lakh
  90. In definite separation from the payrol due to factors beyond the control of the individual is known as :
    (1) Layoff
    (2) Demotion
    (3) Discharge
    (4) Transfer
  91. The basis of which of the following law is tradition, past practices and past rulings of higher courts who look up on similar problems within the accepted set of laws ?
    (1) Common law
    (2) Code law
    (3) International law
    (4) Roman law
  92. Which one of the following assumption is wrong in case of the Neo-Classical theory of international trade ?
    (1) Constant returns to scale
    (2) Only goods move from one country to another, not factors
    (3) Imperfect competition
    (4) The factors of production are fully employed
  93. Which one of the following is wrong in case of transfer pricing used by Transnational Corporations ?
    (1) To reduce the incidence of high direct and indirect taxation
    (2) As a marketing tool
    (3) To insulate the adverse impact of volatile exchange rate
    (4) To increase the share of profit to the collaborator
  94. An accountant of one member country entering the territory of another member country to supply a service is referred to which mode of supply of international service ?
    (1) Cross border supply
    (2) Consumption abroad
    (3) Commercial presence
    (4) Presence of natural person
  95. In which one of the following international pricing, depending on the market situation, price along with other elements of marketing mix, is to be adapted for effective and gainful international marketing ?
    (1) Differential pricing
    (2) Probe pricing
    (3) Penetration pricing
    (4) Competitive pricing
  96. On the basis of statement (A) and (B) answer the following question :
    (A) Special Drawing Rights (SDR) is a fiduciary Reserve Asset.
    (B) Special Drawing Rights (SDR) are allocated by the Fund to members participating in
    its SDR Department.
    (1) Only (A) is correct (2) Only (B) is correct
    (3) Both (A) and (B) are correct (4) Both (A) and (B) are wrong
  97. Which of the following does not come under capital market ?
    (1) Bills of Exchange
    (2) Shares
    (3) Government securities
    (4) Debentures
  98. Which of the following is not compatible with an unlisted company making an initial public offering of equity shares ?
    (1) The company has net tangible assets of at least 5 crores in each of the preceeding , 5 years.
    (2) The_company has a track record of distributable profits for at least 3 out of immediately preceeding 5 years.
    (3) The company has a net worth of at least 1 crore m each of the preceeding 3 full years.
    (4) The aggregate of the proposed issue and r all previous issues made in the same financial year does not exceed 5 times its pre-issue not worth.
  99. The clause 49 on corporate governance does not deal with :
    (1) Board of directors and its composition
    (2) Remuneration of directors
    (3) Management discussion and analysis report
    (4) Involvement of shareholders in the management
  100. Which of the following is not supported under globalisation ?
    (1) Unrestricted trade flow
    (2) Unrestricted flow of labour
    (3) Unrestricted flow of capital
    (4) Unrestricted flow of technology