MPhil PhD IGNOU Commerce 2018

MPhil PhD IGNOU Question Paper 2018

  1. Research helps in explaining the with which something operates.
    (1) Velocity
    (2) Momentum
    (3) Frequency
    (4) Gravity
  2.  Research method is a part of
    (1) A problem
    (3) Research Techniques
    (2) An experiment
    (4) Research Methodology
  3.  Population census is an example of research.
    (1) Survey
    (2) Empirical
    (3) Clinical
    (4) Diagnostic
  4.  Research through experiment and observation is called
    (1) Clinical research
    (2) Experimental research
    (3) Laboratory research
    (4) Empirical research
  5.  Facts or Information are analyzed and critical evaluation is made in
    (1) Survey
    (2) Action research
    (3) Analytical research
    (4) Pilot study
  6.  Fundamental Research is otherwise called
    (1) Action research
    (2) Survey
    (3) Pilot study
    (4) Pure research
  7.  Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process ?
    (1) Searching sources of information to locate the problem
    (2) Survey of related literature
    (3) Identification of the problem
    (4) Searching for solutions to the problem
  8. Action research means
    (1) A longitudinal research
    (2) An applied research
    (3) A research initiated to solve an immediate problem
    (4) A research with socio-economic objective .
  9.  Which of the following is not a way of assessing the trustworthiness of qualitative research ?
    (1) Dependability
    (2) Accessibility
    (3) Transferability
    (4) Credibility
  10.  Which of the following should you think about when preparing your sample size ?
    (1) The sample frame and sampling strategy
    (2) The ethical issues that might arise
    (3) Access to the set sample
    (4) The universe, sample frame, sampling, strategy and budget
  11.  Which of the following is not something a researcher will have to consider when thinking about their sample size ?
    (1) Time and cost
    (2) Non-response
    (3) Length of questionnaire
    (4) Heterogeneity of population
  12.  A document which presents the research problem, its significance and an apparently credible way to address the same is called
    (1) Research question
    (2) Statement of the research problem
    (3) Research objectives
    (4) Research proposal
  13.  The reasoning procedure in research which is essentially moving from the abstract and general to the particular and concrete is called
    (1) Deduction
    (2) Induction
    (3) Inductive reasoning
    (4) Scientific research method
  14.  Which of the following logical processes is/are used in empirical research ?
    (1) Deduction
    (2) Induction
    (3) Either induction or deduction
    (4) Both induction and deduction
  15.  In which of the following sampling methods would the scope for investigation bias be the highest ?
    (1) Simple random sampling
    (2) Cluster sampling
    (3) Systematic sampling
    (4) Judgement sampling
  16.  Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
    (1) Broader the objectives of the study, the larger the sample
    (2) Higher the heterogeneity of population, the larger the sample size
    (3) The lesser error desired, lesser the sample size
    (4) The greater the confidence level desired, the greater the sample size
  17.  In which of the following sampling methods do the respondents themselves play a major role in the selection of sample ?
    (1) Snowball sampling
    (2) Convenience sampling
    (3) Cluster sampling
    (4) Purposive sampling
  18.  When the population is very heterogeneous, which of the following sampling methods would relatively be more appropriate ?
    (1) Purposive sampling
    (2) Stratified random sampling
    (3) Cluster sampling
    (4) Incidental sampling
  19.  The scope for investigator’s bias is more in case of
    (1) Questionnaire
    (2) Schedule
    (3) Interview
    (4) Observation
  20.  Which of the following is an example of a discrete variable ?
    (1) Number of workers in a factory
    (2) Height of students in a class
    (3) Weight of students in a class
    (4) All of the above
  21.  A moderately large sized sample chosen at random will show on an average the same characteristics as the universe. This is called
    (1) Law of inertia of large numbers
    (2) Reasonable accuracy
    (3) Law of statistical regularity
    (4) Statistical error
  22.  Which of the following measures is least affected by extreme items ?
    (1) Mean deviation
    (2) Range
    (3) Standard deviation
    (4) Quartile deviation
  23.  A graph of frequency distribution depicting cumulative frequencies is
    (1) Ogive distribution
    (2) Histogram
    (3) Frequency polygon
    (4) Frequency curve
  24.  The difference between upper limit and lower limit of a class interval is referred to as
    (1) Class limits
    (2) Data array
    (3) Frequency
    (4) None of the above
  25.  Scope for non-response by respondents would be higher in case of a/an
    (1) Schedule
    (2) Interview
    (3) Questionnaire
    (4) Observation
  26.  When ranks are assigned to objects based on their properties or characteristics, then the level of measurement is described as
    (1) Interval measurement
    (2) Nominal measurement
    (3) Ordinal measurement
    (4) Scientific measurement
  27.  “F” test and “T” test are used in which level of measurement ?
    (1) Ordinal
    (2) Nominal
    (3) Interval
    (4) Ratio
  28.  Which of these statements is true ?
    (1) A measuring instrument that is valid need not be reliable.
    (2) A measuring instrument that is valid is always reliable.
    (3) A measuring instrument that is reliable is also valid.
    (4) Reliability and validity of a measuring instrument is inter-dependent.
  29.  Name the two types of statistical techniques that are applicable in ordinal measurement.
    (1) Geometric mean and Coefficient of variation
    (2) Median and Coefficient of rank order correlation
    (3) Mean and Standard deviation
    (4) Random sampling probability and Parametric tests
  30.  Non-parametric tests usually assume data.
    (1) Interval
    (2) Not-normal
    (3) Quantitative
    (4) Hypothetical
  31.  In , each population element has a known and equal chance of being included.
    (1) Purposive sampling
    (2) Quota sampling
    (3) Stratified sampling
    (4) Simple random sampling
  32.  The numerical descriptors that describe samples may be expected to differ from those that describe populations because of random fluctuations inherent in the sampling process. This is called
    (1) Sampling design
    (2) Non-probability sampling
    (3) Sampling error
    (4) Probability sampling
  33.  Preliminary data collection is a part of
    (1) Descriptive research
    (2) Exploratory research
    (3) Applied research
    (4) Explanatory research
  34.  The theoretical framework discusses the inter-relationships among the
    (1) Variables
    (2) Hypothesis
    (3) Concept
    (4) Theory
  35.  Good marketing is no accident, but a result of careful planning and
    (1) Selling
    (2) Execution
    (3) Strategies
    (4) Research
  36.  The most commonly used statistical average is
    (1) Arithmetic average
    (2) Geometric mean
    (3) Harmonic mean
    (4) Standard deviation
  37.  The value of Karl Pearson’s coefficient of correlation can be
    (1) ± 1
    (2) ± 2
    (3) 0
    (4) ± 0.5
  38.  Laspeyres’ Index is based on
    (1) Base year quantities
    (2) Current year quantities
    (3) Average of current and base year quantities
    (4) None of the above
  39.  Sample value is called
    (1) Parameter
    (2) Core value
    (3) Statistic
    (4) Variable
  40.  Sampling which provides for a known non-zero chance of selection is
    (1) Probability sampling
    (2) Non-probability sampling
    (3) Multiple choice
    (4) Analysis
  41.  An example of non-personal method of data collection is
    (1) Interview
    (2) Group Interview
    (3) Schedule
    (4) Telephone Interview
  42.  The facts, figures and other relevant materials serving as a basis for a study is called
    (1) Sample
    (2) Method
    (3) Data
    (4) Theory
  43.  In, the main purpose is to formulate a problem for more precise investigation.
    (1) Exploratory or formulative study
    (2) Descriptive study
    (3) Diagnostic study
    (4) None of the above
  44.  The final stage in a survey is
    (1) Reporting
    (2) Fieldwork
    (3) Assignment
    (4) Calculation
  45.  In testing a hypothesis, the common error is/are
    (1) Type I
    (2) Type I and II
    (3) Type II
    (4) None of the above
  46.  The first variable is a/an
    (1) Abstract
    (3) Independent variable.
    (2) Dependent
    (4) Separate
  47.  Hypothesis, which explains the relationship between two variables is
    (1) Casual
    (2) Relational
    (3) Descriptive
    (4) Tentative
  48.  The formulated problem should have
    (1) Originality
    (2) Values
    (3) Coherence
    (4) Facts
  49.  Objectives in problem formulation means
    (1) Questions to be answered
    (2) Methods
    (3) Techniques
    (4) Methodology
  50.  “Doubt is often better than
    (1) Belief
    (2) Value
    (3) Confidence
    (4) Over-confidence
  51.  Which of the following does not contribute to fiscal deficit ?
    (1) Subsidy to fertilizers
    (2) Capital assistance to public sector enterprises
    (3) Low rates of direct taxes
    (4) Excessive Government borrowings
  52.  Which of the following is not compatible with high economic growth ?
    (1) Skilled human resource
    (2) Technological development
    (3) High interest rates
    (4) Political stability
  53.  The most important aspect of the Exim Policy 2015 — 2020 is
    (1) Establishment of Special Economic Zones
    (2) Boost “Make in India”
    (3) Establishment of Technological Parks
    (4) To enhance technological strength and efficiency of Indian agriculture
  54.  Which of the following is not covered under FEMA 1999 ?
    (1) It also applies to Indian citizens residing outside India.
    (2) It is consistent with full current account convertibility.
    (3) It specifies the areas which require permissions of the Reserve Bank and the Government of India on acquisition/holding of foreign exchange.
    (4) It gives full freedom to a resident in India who was earlier a resident outside India to hold/own/transfer any foreign security/immovable property outside India acquired during his residency there.
  55.  Which of the following was not included in GATT ?
    (1) Non-discrimination
    (2) Reduction of tariffs
    (3) Prohibition of quantitative restrictions
    (4) Consultation among member nations
  56.  USA recently withdrew from
    (1) WTO
    (2) Paris Agreement
    (3) World Economic Forum
    (4) Australia — United States Free Trade Agreement
  57.  India does not have a bilateral trade agreement with
    (1) The Carribean Community
    (2) The Gulf Co-operation Council
    (3) Sri Lanka
    (4) ASEAN
  58.  Which of the following has not been the effect of globalisation on the world economy ?
    (1) Integration of global economy
    (2) Growth in the volume of world trade has been faster than the volume of world output
    (3) Increasing the barriers to the free flow of goods and services
    (4) More foreign competition
  59.  Which of the following Multilateral Environmental Agreements states that every country has the sovereign right to ban the import of hazardous wastes or other wastes, and as a consequence no State should allow any trans border movement of hazardous or other wastes to a state which has prohibited their import :
    (1) The Montreal Protocol
    (2) The Basel Convention
    (3) The London Guidelines
    (4) The CITES Convention
  60.  In which of the following forms of Regional Economic Groupings do the member countries follow common policies in respect of all economic matters ?
    (1) Economic Community
    (2) Common Market
    (3) Customs Union
    (4) Free Trade Area
  61.  If a firm sets a very low price for its products with the intention of driving its competitors out of business, it is termed as
    (1) Market skimming pricing
    (2) Economic pricing
    (3) Psychological pricing
    (4) Penetration pricing
  62.  Which company is the pioneer in direct marketing in India ?
    (1) Cipla
    (2) Avon Cosmetics
    (3) Johnson & Johnson
    (4) Eureka Forbes
  63.  If the product passes through a longer channel of distribution, the marketer will have to give more importance to
    (1) Advertising
    (2) Personal selling
    (3) Direct selling
    (4) None of the above
  64.  A good catchy phrase used and repeated often in an advertisement is termed as
    (1) Idea
    (2) Brand Name
    (3) Trade Mark
    (4) Slogan
  65.  Which of the following is not an element of promotion mix ?
    (1) Advertisement
    (2) Branding
    (3) Personal selling
    (4) Sales promotion
  66.  The strategy of choosing one attribute to excel, to create competitive advantage is known as
    (1) Positioning
    (2) Unique Selling Proposition
    (3) Branding
    (4) None of the above
  67.  White Revolution refers to
    (1) Aquaculture
    (2) Milk
    (3) Poultry
    (4) Rice
  68.  A smaller company tying up with a leading company to distribute through its network is known as
    (1) Syndicated distribution
    (2) Selective distribution
    (3) Exclusive distribution
    (4) Intensive distribution
  69.  Going Rate Pricing is a
    (1) Competitive based pricing
    (2) Value based pricing
    (3) Cost based pricing
    (4) Demand based pricing
  70.  The appropriate strategy for the distribution of bread would be
    (1) Intensive distribution
    (2) Exclusive distribution
    (3) Selective distribution
    (4) Direct marketing
  71.  The Preamble to the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, lays down the object of the RBI
    (1) To regulate the issue of bank notes.
    (2) To regulate the issue of bank notes and the keeping of reserve.
    (3) To regulate the activities of commercial banks.
    (4) To regulate the activities of non-banking subsidiaries/joint ventures.
  72.  Shared Payment Network System (SPNS) offer the following service(s) :
    (1) Cash transaction
    (2) Extended hours of service
    (3) Balance enquiry
    (4) All of the above
  73.  The first step in sending money through an electronic mode is that the remittee has to fill
    (1) Electronic Fund Transfer (EFT)
    (2) Open Market Operation (OMO)
    (3) Host Interface Service (HIS)
    (4) None of the above
  74.  An account operated by a banker where it is possible for a customer to deposit foreign currency is known as
    (1) Current Account
    (2) Saving Account
    (3) Resident Foreign Currency Account
    (4) Foreign Currency Account
  75.  A banker can dishonour a customer’s cheque due to
    (1) Insufficiency of funds
    (2) Death of the principal drawer
    (3) Insolvency of the principal drawer
    (4) All of the above
  76.  Appeal to the Appellate Tribunal is filed on a prescribed form, which is
    (1) Form 36
    (2) Form 35
    (3) Form 31
    (4) None of the above
  77.  Who can be an individual assessee ?
    (1) NGO
    (2) Partner of a partnership firm
    (3) Shareholder in a company
    (4) All of the above
  78.  What is the rate of additional tax paid by a domestic company on dividend distributed ?
    (1) 10%
    (2) 15%
    (3) 20%
    (4) 25%
  79.  Under which Section of the following, is an HUF not entitled to deduction from its Gross Total Income ?
    (1) 80 C
    (2) 80 G
    (3) 80 D
    (4) 80 P
  80.  The maximum rate of interest admissible on partners capital is
    (1) 10%
    (2) 12%
    (3) 15%
    (4) 20%
  81.  A planning spreadsheet may be used to generate among other things,
    (1) Proforma sales
    (2) Cost projections
    (3) Both (1) and (2)
    (4) Either (1) or (2)
  82.  The dual-focused approach includes
    (1) Knowing how
    (2) Knowing that
    (3) Both (1) and (2)
    (4) Either (1) or (2)
  83.  Replacement sales offer a useful chance of future cash flow to the marketers of
    (1) Durable goods
    (2) Perishable goods
    (3) FMCG (Fast Moving Consumer Goods)
    (4) None of the above
  84.  Which of the following is used by entrepreneurs to acquire experience in an international market before making a major commitment ?
    (1) Merger
    (2) Minority interest
    (3) Joint venture
    (4) Majority interest
  85.  A corporate manager who starts a new initiative for his/her company which entails setting up a new distinct business unit and board of Clirectors can be regarded as
    (1) Ecopreneur
    (2) Technopreneur
    (3) Intrapreneur
    (4) Social entrepreneur
  86.  The term Functional Management takes into consideration the following :
    (1) A system of business organisation that is based on an individual having a wide range of skills needed to administer a business
    (2) A type of management that is based more on personality
    (3) A system that groups together various jobs and is organised by departments,sections or functions
    (4) A system that supports a flat form of command chain
  87.  Most management teams use appraisal but what exactly does this term signify ?
    (1) A system used to improve the performance of personnel
    (2) The main way in which an employee’s wages are determined
    (3) A system of reward points offered by retailers to attract customer loyalty
    (4) The evaluation of an individual employee’s performance over a given period of time
  88.  Which of the following will influence the style of management used by a company ?
    (1) The desire by the owner to have the workforce treat him in a fatherly way
    (2) The need to focus discussions on policy as a joint process between employees and employer/manager
    (3) The culture of the company, the nature of its work and the preferences of the individual managers
    (4) The use of distinct penalties for poor performance
  89.  Authoritarian leadership is a term which indicates
    (1) A style of leadership where the leader keeps a very tight control on all information and decision-making processes
    (2) A system of leadership that allows maximum participation by all employees
    (3) A chain of command that is flat and allows considerable personal freedom to make decisions
    (4) The selling of debts to an agency who takes responsibility for their collection
  90.  Which one of the following is not one of Drucker’s five guiding principles of management ?
    (1) Making people’s strengths effective and their weaknesses irrelevant
    (2) Enhancing the ability of people to contribute
    (3) To operate the organisation’s status system
    (4) Integrating people in a common venture by thinking through setting and exemplifying the organisational objectives, values and goals
  91.  The difference between actual cost and standard cost is known as
    (1) Profit
    (2) Variance
    (3) Sunk cost
    (4) Revenue
  92. Standard costing involves determining
    (1) Standard costs
    (2) Actual costs
    (3) Estimated costs
    (4) Sunk costs
  93.  In Cost-Volume-Profit analysis, profit is determined by
    (1) Sales revenue x P/V ratio — Fixed cost
    (2) Sales unit x Contribution per unit — Fixed costs
    (3) Total contribution — Fixed cost
    (4) All of the above
  94.  Semi-variable costs are segregated into fixed and variable costs with the help of
    (1) Scatter diagram
    (2) Method of least squares
    (3) High and low points method
    (4) All of the above
  95.  When fixed cost increases, the break-even point
    (1) Increases
    (2) Decreases
    (3) No effect
    (4) Cannot say
  96.  Profit-volume ratio is improve by reducing
    (1) Variable costs
    (2) Fixed costs
    (3) Both (1) and (2)
    (4) Neither of the two
  97.  In case of Closing Stock appearing in Trial Balance, it is shown in the
    (1) Trading Account
    (2) Manufacturing Account
    (3) Profit and Loss Account
    (4) Balance Sheet
  98.  Cash discount allowed to a debtor should be debited to
    (1) Customer’s Account
    (2) Cash Account
    (3) Allowance Account
    (4) Discount Allowed Account
  99.  Debit balance in the Cash Book means
    (1) Overdraft
    (2) Favourable balance
    (3) Both (1) and (2)
    (4) Neither of the two
  100.  While making an adjustment entry in respect of closing stock, we debit the
    (1) Closing Stock Account
    (2) Trading Account
    (3) Purchases Account
    (4) Cash Account